A client with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse how long the prescribed eye drops will need to be used. Which response made by the nurse is accurate?

Until a smaller angle can be restored.

For long-term control of normal eye pressure.

Until the excess pressure is reduced.

For long-term control of pain and swelling.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Open-angle glaucoma is a chronic eye condition that can cause irreversible damage to the optic nerve, leading to vision loss or blindness. The primary goal of treatment is to lower and control the intraocular pressure (IOP) to prevent further damage. Eye drops are often prescribed to reduce the IOP and are typically used for long-term control of normal eye pressure, even if the pressure has been reduced to a safe level.

Options a, c, and d are incorrect because they do not reﬂect the long-term management of open-angle glaucoma.

While reducing excess pressure may be a goal of treatment, it is not a guarantee that the eye drops will be discontinued once the pressure is normalized.

Likewise, restoring a smaller angle or managing pain and swelling may be secondary goals but are not the primary purpose of using eye drops in open-angle glaucoma

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Ferrous sulfate is best absorbed on an empty stomach. The nurse should instruct the client to wait for 2 hours after meals before taking the tablet to promote the best absorption of the medication. The client should also be advised not to crush the enteric-coated tablets as this can aﬀect the medication’s eﬀectiveness.

A. A coronary artery bypass procedure was performed in 1995. B. Suﬀered with depression following death of spouse in 1999. C. Digoxin and furosemide daily since 1996. D. A Colonoscopy was performed for routine screening six months ago.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart failure by strengthening the heart's contractions and slowing down the heart rate. However, it can also cause nausea, vomiting, and loss of appetite, especially when levels in the body are too high. Furosemide is a diuretic medication that helps to remove excess ﬂuid from the body, which is often necessary in heart failure. However, it can also cause electrolyte imbalances, such as low potassium levels, which can contribute to nausea and vomiting.

Therefore, in a client with heart failure who is experiencing these symptoms, it is important to assess their medication regimen, including dosages and serum levels, to ensure that they are not experiencing medication side eﬀects or toxicity.

Adjustments may need to be made to the client's medication regimen to manage symptoms eﬀectively and prevent further complications. Options (a), (b), and (d) do not have as direct a correlation to the current symptoms and would not have the same level of significance when planning care for this client.

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A client with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse how long the prescribed eye drops will need to be used. Which response made by the nurse is accurate?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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