A college student presents with fatigue, sore throat, and swollen cervical lymph nodes. Laboratory tests were positive for Epstein- Barr viral capsid antigen (VCA) IgM, but negative for Epstein-Barr viral capsid antigen (VCA) IgG. Which statement describes the client's current infection status?
The client has a past Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection that is now inactive.
The client has a bacterial pharyngitis unrelated to Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).
The client is immune to Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), and no treatment is needed.
The client is in the early acute phase of infectious mononucleosis caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).
The Correct Answer is D
Infectious mononucleosis results from primary exposure to the Epstein-Barr virus, targeting B lymphocytes. Pathophysiology involves lymphoproliferation presenting as fever, exudative tonsillitis, and splenomegaly, requiring monitoring of liver enzymes and avoidance of contact sports to prevent rupture.
Rationale:
A. Past infections are characterized by the absence of VCA IgM and the presence of VCA IgG antibodies. The presence of IgG signifies permanent immunity following the resolution of the acute phase, which usually occurs weeks to months after the initial exposure.
B. While symptoms overlap with Group A Streptococcus, the positive VCA IgM test confirms an active viral etiology. Bacterial pharyngitis would not trigger these specific serological markers, and the classic triad of symptoms strongly suggests a viral source in this demographic.
C. Immunity is only established once the patient develops VCA IgG and EBV nuclear antigen antibodies. Currently, the patient lacks the protective antibodies necessary to be considered immune, as the immune system is still reacting to the initial viral load.
D. Detection of VCA IgM without VCA IgG indicates an acute infection phase. These antibodies appear at clinical onset and disappear within 4 to 6 weeks, making them the most sensitive markers for diagnosing a new, current case of infectious mononucleosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Brief introduction:
Hydromorphone is a potent mu-opioid agonist used for severe malignancy-related pain by inhibiting ascending nociceptive pathways. The equianalgesic dose converts oral to parenteral routes to maintain therapeutic plasma concentrations, preventing analgesic gaps or toxicity that can lead to sedation and respiratory depression during the transition.
Rationale:
A. Assessing the level of consciousness monitors for opioid-induced central nervous system depression. While sedation often precedes respiratory failure, it is a safety monitoring parameter rather than a direct metric to determine if the potency of the intravenous dose matches the previous oral analgesic effect.
B. Utilizing a standardized pain scale is the primary method to determine if the new dosage provides equivalent relief. Successful conversion is confirmed when the client reports a pain intensity score consistent with their baseline comfort level, indicating that the pharmacological effect remains stable across different routes.
C. Monitoring the respiratory rate is vital for detecting life-threatening side effects like hypoventilation. Although bradypnea indicates excessive dosing, it does not evaluate if the dose is sufficient for pain management, as a patient can have normal respirations while still experiencing significant uncontrolled breakthrough pain.
D. Evaluating blood pressure helps identify side effects such as orthostatic hypotension caused by peripheral vasodilation. However, hemodynamic changes are inconsistent indicators of analgesic efficacy, as pain itself often causes sympathetic activation and tachycardia, making vital signs unreliable for assessing equianalgesic dosing accuracy.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) function by irreversibly inhibiting the hydrogen-potassium ATPase enzyme system in gastric parietal cells, significantly increasing gastric pH. Chronic suppression of hydrochloric acid impairs the intestinal absorption of insoluble calcium carbonate and interferes with the osteoclastic activity necessary for normal bone remodeling. Long-term therapy is statistically linked to hypomagnesemia and an increased risk of hip, wrist, and spinal fractures due to decreased bone mineral density.
Rationale:
A. Recommending the avoidance of all physical activity is contraindicated as it promotes muscle atrophy and accelerates bone loss through disuse. Weight-bearing exercises are essential for maintaining skeletal integrity and improving balance. Preventing falls should focus on environmental safety and strength training rather than total immobilization.
B. Instructing a client to stop a long-term medication immediately can lead to rebound acid hypersecretion, causing severe gastric distress or ulceration. Any discontinuation of therapy must be managed through a gradual tapering process under the supervision of a healthcare provider. The nurse must prioritize medication safety and physician consultation over abrupt cessation.
C. Teaching that bone health is unaffected by PPIs is a significant clinical error that ignores established pharmacological risks. Extensive research confirms that prolonged gastric acid suppression reduces the bioavailability of minerals essential for bone strength. Nurses have an ethical duty to provide evidence-based education regarding the potential side effects of chronic drug use.
D. Ensuring adequate intake of calcium and vitamin D is the most important intervention to mitigate PPI-induced bone loss. Since acid suppression affects absorption, clients may be encouraged to use calcium citrate, which does not require an acidic environment for uptake. This proactive nutritional support helps maintain bone mineral density and reduces the overall fracture risk.
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