A client experiencing an acute dystonic reaction presents with a laryngeal spasm. Which treatment should the nurse prepare?
Intravenous administration of benztropine.
Oral administration of divalproex.
Intravenous administration of isotonic crystalloid fluid.
Oral administration of lorazepam.
The Correct Answer is A
A) Correct - Acute dystonic reactions are involuntary muscle spasms caused by certain medications, including antipsychotic drugs. These reactions can sometimes affect the muscles of the face and neck, including the larynx. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat acute dystonic reactions. It works by blocking certain neurotransmitters that contribute to muscle spasms, helping to relieve the symptoms.
B) Incorrect - Divalproex is an anticonvulsant medication primarily used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder. It is not the appropriate treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are usually caused by certain antipsychotic medications and are characterized by sudden and involuntary muscle contractions. Divalproex does not have the specific mechanism of action needed to alleviate the symptoms of acute dystonic reactions.
C) Incorrect - Isotonic crystalloid fluids are used for various purposes, such as fluid resuscitation, maintaining hydration, and balancing electrolytes. However, they are not a treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are neurological and musculoskeletal in nature and require medications with specific anticholinergic properties, like benztropine, to address the underlying issue.
D) Incorrect - Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety, sedation, and seizure control. While it can have a relaxing effect on muscles, it is not the first-line treatment for acute dystonic reactions. Anticholinergic medications like benztropine are more appropriate because they directly counteract the neurotransmitter imbalances that lead to muscle spasms in these reactions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is the finding that the PN should report to the charge nurse because it indicates a possible complication of Guillain-Barre syndrome, which is autonomic dysfunction. This can affect the cardiac, respiratory, and gastrointestinal systems and cause life-threatening problems such as arrhythmias, hypotension, or respiratory failure. The PN should monitor the client's vital signs closely and report any abnormal changes.
Correct Answer is ["B","D"]
Explanation
A) Incorrect - Providing a regular diet tray is important for the client's nutritional needs, but it is not as urgent as assessing vital signs or administering Albuterol in response to the client's acute symptoms.
B) Correct- This action is a priority after any assessment or intervention. Vital signs provide important information about the client's overall condition, including heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation.
C) Incorrect - Applying oxygen is important, but its priority depends on the client's vital signs and oxygen saturation, which should be assessed first.
D) Correct- Administering Albuterol as ordered is crucial for addressing the client's acute breathing difficulty. Albuterol is a bronchodilator that helps alleviate asthma symptoms, and timely administration is essential.
E) Incorrect - Performing a pulmonary function test is valuable for assessing lung function, but it's not an immediate concern compared to addressing the client's breathing difficulty.
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