A client experiencing an acute dystonic reaction presents with a laryngeal spasm. Which treatment should the nurse prepare?
Intravenous administration of benztropine.
Oral administration of divalproex.
Intravenous administration of isotonic crystalloid fluid.
Oral administration of lorazepam.
The Correct Answer is A
A) Correct - Acute dystonic reactions are involuntary muscle spasms caused by certain medications, including antipsychotic drugs. These reactions can sometimes affect the muscles of the face and neck, including the larynx. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat acute dystonic reactions. It works by blocking certain neurotransmitters that contribute to muscle spasms, helping to relieve the symptoms.
B) Incorrect - Divalproex is an anticonvulsant medication primarily used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder. It is not the appropriate treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are usually caused by certain antipsychotic medications and are characterized by sudden and involuntary muscle contractions. Divalproex does not have the specific mechanism of action needed to alleviate the symptoms of acute dystonic reactions.
C) Incorrect - Isotonic crystalloid fluids are used for various purposes, such as fluid resuscitation, maintaining hydration, and balancing electrolytes. However, they are not a treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are neurological and musculoskeletal in nature and require medications with specific anticholinergic properties, like benztropine, to address the underlying issue.
D) Incorrect - Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety, sedation, and seizure control. While it can have a relaxing effect on muscles, it is not the first-line treatment for acute dystonic reactions. Anticholinergic medications like benztropine are more appropriate because they directly counteract the neurotransmitter imbalances that lead to muscle spasms in these reactions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Correct - Flaring of the nares is a sign of increased respiratory effort and can indicate acute respiratory distress.
B) Incorrect - While a resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths/min is elevated for a 4-month-old infant, it may not necessarily indicate acute distress, especially when considered along with other signs.
C) Incorrect - Bilateral bronchial breath sounds may indicate lung pathology, but they are not specific to acute respiratory distress.
D) Incorrect - Diaphragmatic respirations, where the abdomen moves more than the chest during breathing, are normal for infants. They do not necessarily indicate acute respiratory distress.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
d. “May I sit with you for a while?"
This comment shows empathy, respect, and support for the client, without being intrusive or judgmental. The PN acknowledges the client's feelings and offers companionship, which can help reduce isolation and loneliness.
The other options are not correct because:
- This comment may be perceived as coercive or dismissive of the client's feelings, as it tries to persuade the client to do something he does not want to do or enjoy.
- This comment may be perceived as accusatory or interrogatory, as it questions the client's decision or motive for staying in his room.
- This comment may be perceived as minimizing or invalidating the client's feelings, as it implies that the client should not be sad or that his family is doing enough for him.
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