A client experiencing an acute dystonic reaction presents with a laryngeal spasm. Which treatment should the nurse prepare?
Intravenous administration of benztropine.
Oral administration of divalproex.
Intravenous administration of isotonic crystalloid fluid.
Oral administration of lorazepam.
The Correct Answer is A
A) Correct - Acute dystonic reactions are involuntary muscle spasms caused by certain medications, including antipsychotic drugs. These reactions can sometimes affect the muscles of the face and neck, including the larynx. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat acute dystonic reactions. It works by blocking certain neurotransmitters that contribute to muscle spasms, helping to relieve the symptoms.
B) Incorrect - Divalproex is an anticonvulsant medication primarily used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder. It is not the appropriate treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are usually caused by certain antipsychotic medications and are characterized by sudden and involuntary muscle contractions. Divalproex does not have the specific mechanism of action needed to alleviate the symptoms of acute dystonic reactions.
C) Incorrect - Isotonic crystalloid fluids are used for various purposes, such as fluid resuscitation, maintaining hydration, and balancing electrolytes. However, they are not a treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are neurological and musculoskeletal in nature and require medications with specific anticholinergic properties, like benztropine, to address the underlying issue.
D) Incorrect - Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety, sedation, and seizure control. While it can have a relaxing effect on muscles, it is not the first-line treatment for acute dystonic reactions. Anticholinergic medications like benztropine are more appropriate because they directly counteract the neurotransmitter imbalances that lead to muscle spasms in these reactions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Offering 10% dextrose via nipple feeding is used for infants who are unable to feed orally or with severe hypoglycemia. This neonate is still within range hence dextrose is not incicated at this point.
B. The infant is jittery with a glucose of 40 mg/dL, which indicates mild symptomatic hypoglycemia. Initiating frequent feedings of breast milk or formula is the first action to stabilize glucose while supporting oral intake.
C. Repeating the heel stick is important for monitoring, but it does not treat the low glucose and is not the first action.
D. Assessing for hypocalcemia may be indicated later, but the priority is addressing hypoglycemia through feeding.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A high blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level indicates impaired renal function, which can be caused by dehydration, infection, or nephrotoxic drugs. Chemotherapy can damage the kidneys and increase the risk of renal failure. The PN should report this finding to the charge nurse, as it may require fluid replacement, dose adjustment, or discontinuation of the chemotherapy.
The other options are not correct because:
- Periodic nausea and vomiting are common side effects of chemotherapy that can be managed with antiemetics, hydration, and dietary modifications. They are not as urgent as a high BUN level.
- Decreased deep tendon reflexes may indicate hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, or peripheral neuropathy, which can be caused by chemotherapy or other factors. They are not as urgent as a high BUN level.
- A platelet count of 135,000/mm3 or 135 x 10^9/L is slightly below the normal range, but not significantly low. Chemotherapy can cause thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding. The PN should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, but this finding is not as urgent as a high BUN level.
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