Patient Data
The nurse notifies the healthcare provider of the client's status. The healthcare provider comes to the bedside to evaluate the client. Which should the nurse do? Select all that apply.
Offer the client ice chips
Set the ventilator to give mandatory breaths
Increase the fraction of inspired oxygen
Set up supplemental oxygen delivery
Gather supplies for extubation
Suggest a different ventilator mode to the healthcare provider
Place a nasogastric tube
Correct Answer : D,E
Brief introduction:
Ventilator weaning is the process of gradually reducing mechanical ventilatory support as a patient resumes spontaneous breathing. When a client successfully tolerates minimal pressure support, it indicates sufficient diaphragmatic strength and gas exchange capability for independent ventilation. The transition to extubation requires meticulous preparation to manage the upper airway and ensure the patient maintains adequate oxygenation during the critical post-extubation period.
Rationale:
A. Offering ice chips immediately is contraindicated because the client is still artificially intubated. Even after the tube is removed, the nurse must assess the swallowing reflex to prevent aspiration of solids or liquids into the lungs. Early oral intake before a formal bedside swallow evaluation can lead to aspiration pneumonia in a recently extubated patient.
B. Setting the ventilator to give mandatory breaths would reverse the weaning process. The goal of decreasing pressure support to zero is to prove the client can sustain spontaneous ventilation without machine assistance. Reintroducing mandatory breaths would increase the work of breathing and indicate a failure of the current weaning trial rather than progress.
C. Increasing the fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) is not indicated if the client is stable on 35% oxygen. Elevating oxygen levels without clinical evidence of hypoxemia can lead to oxygen toxicity or suppress the natural respiratory drive. The nurse should maintain the current settings as the client demonstrates successful tolerance of the pressure support reduction.
D. Setting up supplemental oxygen delivery is a vital step before removing the endotracheal tube. Most patients require a cool mist mask or nasal cannula immediately after extubation to maintain arterial oxygenation while the body adjusts. Having this equipment ready at the bedside ensures a seamless transition and prevents acute desaturation once the ventilator is disconnected.
E. Gathering supplies for extubation is the priority action when a client reaches zero pressure support. This includes suction equipment, a 10 mL syringe to deflate the endotracheal cuff, and emergency re-intubation supplies. Preparation allows the healthcare provider to perform the procedure safely, ensuring the airway is cleared of secretions before the tube is withdrawn.
F. Suggesting a different ventilator mode is inappropriate because the client has already successfully weaned using pressure support. Reaching 0 cm H2O indicates that the client is ready for extubation evaluation, not a change in the mechanical ventilation strategy. Changing modes now would only delay the removal of the tube and increase the risk of ventilator-associated complications.
G. Placing a nasogastric tube is irrelevant to the extubation process and weaning protocol. While the client may eventually need enteral support, the immediate focus is on airway management and the safe removal of the endotracheal tube. Routine insertion of a gastric tube during a weaning trial adds unnecessary stress and does not support the respiratory goal.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
Postpartum glycemic management in a client with an HbA1C of 11.4 % requires a complex carbohydrate approach to prevent rapid postprandial glucose spikes. Diet therapy focuses on low-glycemic index foods that provide sustained energy and satiety while minimizing the need for large doses of supplemental regular insulin in the immediate recovery period.
Rationale:
- Scrambled eggs provides a high-quality source of protein and fat with negligible carbohydrate content, making it an ideal postpartum breakfast option for a diabetic client. Protein slows gastric emptying, which helps stabilize blood glucose levels and prevents the acute hyperglycemia seen in the client’s 2250 glucose result of 278 mg/dL. Choosing eggs helps maintain a consistent carbohydrate intake as prescribed in the provider's orders.
- Selecting whole grains over refined options ensures a higher intake of dietary fiber, which significantly slows the absorption of glucose into the bloodstream. Fiber is essential for postpartum clients to prevent constipation, especially those with sluggish lower bowel sounds and a history of magnesium use. This selection supports the medium carbohydrate diet goal while providing necessary micronutrients for maternal recovery.
- Blueberry muffins are typically high in refined flour and added sugars, leading to a rapid increase in blood sugar levels. Even if they contain fruit, the high carbohydrate density and low fiber-to-sugar ratio make them unsuitable for a client already exhibiting signs of hyperglycemia like polydipsia and blurry vision. This choice would likely exacerbate the client’s metabolic instability.
- Waffles are primarily composed of simple carbohydrates and are often served with high-sugar syrups or toppings. For a client with poorly controlled gestational diabetes, consuming waffles would cause a significant glycemic excursion that could necessitate increased insulin titration. They lack the protein and fiber necessary to support stable blood sugar levels in the fourth stage of labor.
- While toast provides carbohydrates, the addition of jam introduces concentrated sweets that are quickly absorbed, leading to a sharp rise in serum glucose. The combination of white bread and jam represents a high-glycemic meal that contradicts the goal of managing the client’s 278 mg/dL glucose level. The nurse should emphasize complex alternatives to avoid further osmotic diuresis and polyuria.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Brief introduction:
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that affects both upper and lower motor neurons, leading to muscle weakness, atrophy, and eventually respiratory failure. As the disease progresses, it often involves the bulbar muscles, which control swallowing and speech. Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) in ALS patients significantly increases the risk of silent aspiration and aspiration pneumonia, as the cough reflex eventually weakens and the airway becomes unprotected during meals.
Rationale:
A. While supplemental liquid feedings may eventually be necessary to maintain caloric intake, they do not address the immediate safety risk of coughing during the current meal. In fact, thin liquids are often more difficult to swallow safely than thickened liquids or soft solids for patients with bulbar involvement.
B. Assisting the client to lie down while eating is highly dangerous and increases the risk of aspiration. Patients with dysphagia must remain in a high-Fowler’s position (upright) during and for at least 30 minutes after meals to allow gravity to assist the passage of food and prevent reflux.
C. The tucked-chin position is a compensatory technique that narrows the airway entrance and widens the vallecular space, allowing food to pass more safely into the esophagus. For a client who is coughing (a sign of potential aspiration), this is the most effective immediate intervention to protect the tracheal opening while they continue to feed themselves.
D. Assistive feeding devices (like specialized spoons or plates) help with manual dexterity and independence if the client has hand weakness, but they do not improve the physiological safety of the swallow. The priority here is not the ability to hold the utensil, but the prevention of bolus entry into the lungs.
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