A couple presents to the clinic with concerns about infertility after trying to conceive for 14 months without success. The nurse knows which of the following is the most appropriate initial response?
Recommend the woman undergo immediate in vitro fertilization (IVF)
Explain that infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after 1 year of regular unprotected intercourse
Advise the man to begin testosterone supplementation
Suggest the couple consider adoption as a primary alternative
The Correct Answer is B
A. IVF is an advanced fertility treatment that is not the first step in infertility management. Initial evaluation should include a comprehensive assessment of both partners to identify potential reversible causes before considering assisted reproductive technologies.
B. This response provides accurate information and reassurance while establishing the basis for appropriate next steps in evaluation. Since the couple has been trying for 14 months, further assessment is warranted, but immediate invasive interventions are not yet indicated.
C. Testosterone supplementation can actually suppress spermatogenesis by decreasing gonadotropin release, leading to reduced sperm production. It should never be initiated without a complete evaluation by a fertility specialist or endocrinologist.
D. Suggesting adoption at this stage may be premature and insensitive. The couple first requires supportive counseling and diagnostic testing to explore treatable causes of infertility before discussing long-term alternatives.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Fetal position is typically determined by the relationship of the fetal presenting part (usually the back of the head, or occiput) to the maternal pelvis. The baby's head is presenting, and the occiput (the small, diamond-shaped posterior fontanelle) is pointed toward the front. The occiput is pointed toward the mother's left side, toward the anterior (front) quadrant of the mother's pelvis. Therefore, the position is Left Occiput Anterior (LOA)
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
A. Coffee: Moderate caffeine intake (less than 200 mg per day) is generally considered safe during pregnancy. Excessive amounts may increase the risk of miscarriage or low birth weight, but caffeine itself is not classified as a teratogen.
B. Alcohol: Alcohol is a well-known teratogen that can cross the placenta and disrupt fetal development. Prenatal alcohol exposure can cause fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASDs), leading to growth restriction, facial abnormalities, and neurodevelopmental impairments.
C. Radiation exposure: High levels of radiation, especially during early pregnancy, can damage rapidly dividing fetal cells and cause congenital malformations, growth restriction, or pregnancy loss. Even diagnostic exposure should be carefully monitored and minimized.
D. MMR vaccine: The MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine contains live attenuated viruses and is contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential teratogenic effects on the developing fetus. Women are advised to avoid conception for at least 4 weeks after receiving it.
E. Folic acid: Folic acid is not a teratogen; it is protective against neural tube defects such as spina bifida and anencephaly. Supplementation before and during early pregnancy supports normal neural development and reduces major congenital anomalies.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.