A couple presents to the clinic with concerns about infertility after trying to conceive for 14 months without success. The nurse knows which of the following is the most appropriate initial response?
Recommend the woman undergo immediate in vitro fertilization (IVF)
Explain that infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after 1 year of regular unprotected intercourse
Advise the man to begin testosterone supplementation
Suggest the couple consider adoption as a primary alternative
The Correct Answer is B
A. IVF is an advanced fertility treatment that is not the first step in infertility management. Initial evaluation should include a comprehensive assessment of both partners to identify potential reversible causes before considering assisted reproductive technologies.
B. This response provides accurate information and reassurance while establishing the basis for appropriate next steps in evaluation. Since the couple has been trying for 14 months, further assessment is warranted, but immediate invasive interventions are not yet indicated.
C. Testosterone supplementation can actually suppress spermatogenesis by decreasing gonadotropin release, leading to reduced sperm production. It should never be initiated without a complete evaluation by a fertility specialist or endocrinologist.
D. Suggesting adoption at this stage may be premature and insensitive. The couple first requires supportive counseling and diagnostic testing to explore treatable causes of infertility before discussing long-term alternatives.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "The shiny Schultz side is the fetal side, smooth and shiny, delivered first in most cases.": The Schultz side of the placenta is the fetal surface, covered by the amnion, giving it a smooth, shiny appearance. It is often delivered first and represents the side facing the fetus in utero.
B. "The dirty Duncan side is the fetal side, smooth and shiny, that faces the baby.": The dirty Duncan side is not the fetal surface; it is the maternal side. It appears rough and reddish due to the presence of cotyledons where the placenta was attached to the uterine wall.
C. "The dirty Duncan side is smooth and shiny and indicates incomplete placental separation.": The Duncan side is rough and irregular, not smooth. Its appearance does not indicate incomplete separation but rather represents the natural maternal attachment surface of the placenta.
D. "The shiny Schultz side is the maternal side that attaches to the uterine wall.": The Schultz side is the fetal side, not the maternal attachment surface. The maternal side (Duncan) attaches to the uterus, while the Schultz side faces the fetus and is lined with amniotic membrane.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Prevents uterine contractions to reduce the risk of miscarriage: Progesterone maintains uterine quiescence by relaxing smooth muscle and preventing premature contractions. It also supports implantation and sustains the endometrial lining, reducing the risk of early pregnancy loss and promoting fetal development.
B. Stimulates fetal lung development: Fetal lung maturity is primarily stimulated by corticosteroids, not progesterone. Betamethasone or dexamethasone is often administered to enhance surfactant production when preterm birth is anticipated.
C. Promotes dilation of the cervix during labor: Cervical dilation occurs due to increased prostaglandin activity and estrogen levels near term, not progesterone. In fact, progesterone helps maintain cervical firmness and closure during early and mid-pregnancy.
D. Increases milk production after delivery: Milk production is stimulated by prolactin following delivery when progesterone and estrogen levels drop. High progesterone during pregnancy actually inhibits lactation by blocking prolactin’s action on mammary glands.
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