A hospitalized client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome has wasting syndrome. Which nursing action is appropriate to assign to an LPN/LVN when providing care to the client?
Providing instructions about a high-calorie, high-protein diet.
Administering oxandrolone 5 mg/day.
Assessing the client for other nutritional risk factors.
Developing a plan of care to improve the client's appetite.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Providing instructions about diet requires teaching, which is outside the scope of practice for an LPN/LVN. Teaching is a responsibility reserved for registered nurses because it involves assessment, evaluation, and patient education.
Choice B reason: Administering oxandrolone 5 mg/day is appropriate for an LPN/LVN. Medication administration is within their scope of practice, provided the medication is prescribed and the nurse follows established protocols. This task does not require independent judgment or advanced assessment skills.
Choice C reason: Assessing for nutritional risk factors requires critical thinking and advanced assessment skills, which are responsibilities of the RN. LPNs/LVNs can collect data but cannot independently interpret or evaluate risk factors.
Choice D reason: Developing a plan of care is a complex responsibility that involves synthesizing assessment data, prioritizing needs, and setting goals. This is outside the scope of practice for LPNs/LVNs and must be completed by an RN.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: 0.5 tsp is equivalent to 2.5 mL because 1 teaspoon equals 5 mL. If the client were instructed to take only 0.5 tsp, they would receive only 2.5 mL of the prescribed 10 mL dose. This would result in significant underdosing, which could lead to ineffective treatment of the infection and contribute to antibiotic resistance. Therefore, this option is incorrect.
Choice B reason: 1 tsp equals 5 mL. If the client were instructed to take 1 tsp, they would only receive half of the prescribed 10 mL dose. This underdosing would not achieve therapeutic levels of the antibiotic in the bloodstream, leading to poor infection control and possible worsening of the condition. Thus, this option is also incorrect.
Choice C reason: 2 tsp equals 10 mL because 1 teaspoon is 5 mL and multiplying 5 mL × 2 = 10 mL. This matches the exact prescribed dose of amoxicillin. Administering the correct dose ensures therapeutic effectiveness, eradication of the infection, and prevention of antibiotic resistance. This is the correct answer.
Choice D reason: 3 tsp equals 15 mL. If the client were instructed to take 3 tsp, they would receive 5 mL more than the prescribed dose. This overdosing could increase the risk of side effects such as gastrointestinal upset, diarrhea, or allergic reactions. Overdosing antibiotics also increases the risk of toxicity and is not safe. Therefore, this option is incorrect.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Glucose levels assess carbohydrate metabolism and are useful in evaluating diabetes or hypoglycemia. However, glucose does not provide a direct measure of nutritional status related to protein stores or long-term malnutrition.
Choice B reason: Creatinine levels are used to evaluate kidney function and muscle mass breakdown. While they can be affected by nutritional status, they are not the primary lab used to assess overall nutrition.
Choice C reason: Albumin is the best indicator of nutritional status because it reflects protein levels in the blood. Low albumin levels are associated with malnutrition, chronic illness, and poor protein intake. It is commonly ordered to evaluate clients with weight loss and anorexia.
Choice D reason: Hemoglobin measures oxygen-carrying capacity and can be affected by iron deficiency or anemia. While anemia may be related to poor nutrition, hemoglobin is not the primary lab used to evaluate overall nutritional status.
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