A light is directed at a patient's pupil, which contracts. It is also noted that the other pupil contracts as well, though it is not exposed to bright light. Which term describes this phenomenon?
Direct reaction
Consensual reaction
Near reaction
Accommodation
The Correct Answer is B
A. Direct reaction is incorrect because the direct pupillary light reflex refers specifically to the constriction of the pupil that is directly exposed to light. It does not describe the behavior of the opposite pupil, which is responding indirectly. Assessing the direct reaction helps evaluate the function of the afferent pathway (optic nerve, CN II) and the efferent pathway (oculomotor nerve, CN III) of the illuminated eye.
B. Consensual reaction is correct because the consensual pupillary light reflex describes the simultaneous constriction of the pupil opposite to the one being directly stimulated by light. When light enters one eye, afferent signals travel via the optic nerve (CN II) to the pretectal nuclei in the midbrain, which then communicate bilaterally with the Edinger-Westphal nuclei. Efferent signals are sent via the oculomotor nerves (CN III) to both pupils, resulting in constriction of both the directly exposed pupil and the contralateral pupil. The consensual reflex demonstrates bilateral integrity of the optic and oculomotor pathways, even when only one eye is exposed to light.
C. Near reaction is incorrect because it refers to pupillary constriction that occurs when the eyes focus on a near object, as part of the accommodation reflex, and is not triggered by light. It is primarily a test of focusing ability rather than pupillary light response.
D. Accommodation is incorrect because it involves a triad of responses—pupillary constriction, lens thickening, and convergence of the eyes—when shifting focus from a distant to a near object. While pupillary constriction occurs, it is not in response to light and therefore is distinct from the consensual light reflex.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Spleen is incorrect because the spleen is assessed using bimanual palpation, beginning in the right lower quadrant and progressing diagonally toward the left upper quadrant. The spleen must enlarge significantly before it becomes palpable, and the hooking technique is not appropriate for detecting splenomegaly.
B. Liver is correct because the hooking technique is a specialized method used to palpate the liver edge, particularly in patients who are overweight, obese, or have increased abdominal muscle tone, where standard palpation may be difficult. In this technique, the examiner stands to the patient’s right, hooks their fingers under the right costal margin, and asks the patient to take a deep breath. As the patient inhales, the diaphragm descends and pushes the liver downward, allowing the examiner to feel the liver edge as it meets the fingertips. This method helps assess the size, consistency, and tenderness of the liver, which can indicate conditions such as hepatomegaly, cirrhosis, or liver congestion.
C. Kidney is incorrect because the kidneys are evaluated using deep bimanual palpation, with one hand placed under the flank and the other on the abdomen. The examiner attempts to “capture” the kidney between the hands during inspiration. The hooking technique is not used for kidney assessment.
D. Gallbladder is incorrect because the gallbladder is typically not palpable unless enlarged or inflamed. Instead, it is assessed using Murphy’s sign, where the patient experiences pain and inspiratory arrest during palpation of the right upper quadrant. The hooking technique does not apply to gallbladder evaluation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Pulmonary hypertension is incorrect because it may produce a loud pulmonic component of S2 (P2) or possibly a murmur of pulmonic regurgitation, but it is not typically described as a classic blowing diastolic murmur best heard along the left sternal border.
B. Right sided heart failure is incorrect because it is a clinical syndrome, not a direct cause of a specific murmur. While it may be associated with murmurs such as tricuspid regurgitation, those are typically holosystolic, not diastolic.
C. Left sided heart failure is incorrect because, like right-sided failure, it is a condition rather than a specific valvular lesion. It may be associated with murmurs, but it does not directly produce a blowing diastolic murmur.
D. Aortic regurgitation is correct because it classically presents as a blowing, decrescendo diastolic murmur best heard along the left sternal border (2nd to 4th intercostal spaces). This murmur occurs due to backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during diastole, and is commonly seen in older adults due to degenerative valve changes.
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