A patient tells the advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) about their experience with prolonged therapy for their breast cancer. The APRN comments, "That must have been a very trying time for you". What is this statement an example of?
Reassurance
Clarification
Validation
Summarization
The Correct Answer is C
A. Reassurance is incorrect because reassurance involves reducing a patient’s anxiety by conveying that things will be okay or improving, such as saying, “You’ll be fine” or “Everything looks normal.” The statement in question does not provide comfort or promise an outcome.
B. Clarification is incorrect because clarification seeks to ensure understanding or resolve ambiguity by asking questions like, “Do you mean the therapy caused side effects?” The APRN’s statement is not seeking further explanation—it is responding to the patient’s emotions.
C. Validation is correct because the APRN is acknowledging and affirming the patient’s feelings. By saying, “That must have been a very trying time for you,” the APRN demonstrates empathy and recognition of the emotional impact of the patient’s experience. Validation helps build rapport, trust, and therapeutic communication, allowing patients to feel heard and understood.
D. Summarization is incorrect because summarization involves condensing the patient’s statements to highlight key points or clarify the overall message, often used at the end of a session. The statement here is empathic reflection, not a summary of events.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Pulmonary hypertension is incorrect because it may produce a loud pulmonic component of S2 (P2) or possibly a murmur of pulmonic regurgitation, but it is not typically described as a classic blowing diastolic murmur best heard along the left sternal border.
B. Right sided heart failure is incorrect because it is a clinical syndrome, not a direct cause of a specific murmur. While it may be associated with murmurs such as tricuspid regurgitation, those are typically holosystolic, not diastolic.
C. Left sided heart failure is incorrect because, like right-sided failure, it is a condition rather than a specific valvular lesion. It may be associated with murmurs, but it does not directly produce a blowing diastolic murmur.
D. Aortic regurgitation is correct because it classically presents as a blowing, decrescendo diastolic murmur best heard along the left sternal border (2nd to 4th intercostal spaces). This murmur occurs due to backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during diastole, and is commonly seen in older adults due to degenerative valve changes.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Upper respiratory tract infection 5 days ago is correct because acute otitis media commonly develops as a complication of a recent upper respiratory tract infection (URTI). The infection causes eustachian tube dysfunction, leading to fluid accumulation in the middle ear, which becomes infected. This results in a bulging, erythematous (red), and distorted tympanic membrane, along with ear pain, especially in children.
B. Missed Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR) vaccine is incorrect because although vaccines prevent serious viral illnesses, missing the MMR vaccine is not a direct cause of acute otitis media. The child’s symptoms are consistent with a bacterial middle ear infection, not a vaccine-preventable viral illness.
C. Constant chewing of sugar free gum is incorrect because chewing gum may affect the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) or ear pressure slightly, but it does not cause a bulging tympanic membrane or infection.
D. Increased intake of sweets for the last 3 days is incorrect because diet, including sugar intake, does not directly cause middle ear infections. While excessive sugar may impact general health, it is not associated with acute otitis media.
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