A married couple is scheduled for family therapy, but only the wife shows up for the appointment. What is the most appropriate action?
Discharge the couple.
Reschedule the appointment for a time when both members of the couple can be present.
See the wife now and see the spouse separately, when available.
Tell the wife you will only see her, since her spouse is not serious about therapy.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Discharging the couple prematurely may hinder therapeutic engagement and does not reflect best practice in family therapy.
Choice B reason: Rescheduling ensures that both partners are present, which is essential for effective family therapy. It respects the therapeutic framework and promotes balanced participation.
Choice C reason: Seeing individuals separately may be appropriate in some contexts but is not ideal for initial family therapy sessions where joint dynamics are the focus.
Choice D reason: Making assumptions about the spouse’s commitment without direct communication is inappropriate and may damage rapport.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Glutamate is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain and is involved in learning, memory, and neuroplasticity. While dysregulation of glutamate has been implicated in mood disorders, it is not produced in the raphe nuclei and is not the primary neurotransmitter associated with depression, anxiety, or OCD.
Choice B reason: Acetylcholine plays a role in attention, learning, and memory. It is not synthesized in the raphe nuclei and is more commonly associated with neurodegenerative disorders like Alzheimer’s disease rather than mood or anxiety disorders.
Choice C reason: Serotonin is synthesized in the raphe nuclei of the brainstem and is critically involved in mood regulation, anxiety control, and obsessive-compulsive behaviors. A deficiency in serotonin transmission has been strongly linked to depression, anxiety disorders, and OCD. This neurotransmitter is the target of many antidepressants, including SSRIs, which aim to increase its availability in the synaptic cleft.
Choice D reason: Norepinephrine is involved in arousal, alertness, and the stress response. Although it plays a role in mood disorders, it is primarily produced in the locus coeruleus, not the raphe nuclei. Its deficiency is more closely associated with fatigue and concentration issues in depression rather than obsessive-compulsive symptoms.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Extrapyramidal symptoms are associated with dopamine antagonists, such as antipsychotics, and are not a concern with lamotrigine.
Choice B reason: Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a rare but serious dermatologic reaction associated with lamotrigine, especially when titrated too quickly. Slow titration reduces the risk of this potentially life-threatening condition.
Choice C reason: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is linked to antipsychotic use and is not associated with lamotrigine.
Choice D reason: Orthostatic hypotension is a side effect of some psychotropic medications but is not a primary concern with lamotrigine.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.