A 28-year-old woman with a history of unstable interpersonal relationships, self-harm, suicide attempts, mood lability, substance abuse, and extreme irritability presents to the psychiatric nurse practitioner for an evaluation. She states, “I just want to know what’s wrong with me. I feel like I spend 95% of my time either angry or on the floor crying in the fetal position.” The PMHNP suspects this client has borderline personality disorder. In this scenario, how would the discomfort the client experiences as a result of her behaviors best be described?
Ego-dystonic
Ego-syntonic
Maladaptive
Inflexible
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Ego-dystonic refers to thoughts, behaviors, or feelings that are in conflict with a person’s ideal self-image and cause distress. The client’s emotional suffering and desire to understand “what’s wrong” indicate that she finds her symptoms distressing and inconsistent with how she wants to feel or behave, which is characteristic of ego-dystonic experiences.
Choice B reason: Ego-syntonic behaviors are consistent with the individual’s self-perception and are not experienced as problematic. This does not apply here, as the client is clearly distressed and seeking help for her symptoms.
Choice C reason: Maladaptive refers to behaviors that inhibit a person’s ability to adjust to new situations or environments. While the client’s behaviors are maladaptive, this term does not specifically capture the internal conflict and distress she feels, making ego-dystonic the more precise descriptor.
Choice D reason: Inflexible describes rigidity in behavior or thought, often seen in personality disorders. Although the client may exhibit inflexible patterns, this term does not address the emotional discomfort she experiences due to those patterns.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Carbamazepine is associated with significant teratogenic risks, including neural tube defects and craniofacial abnormalities. It is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential to cause congenital malformations, especially during the first trimester.
Choice B reason: Lurasidone has limited data on teratogenicity but is generally considered safer than mood stabilizers like carbamazepine. It is often used cautiously in pregnancy when benefits outweigh risks.
Choice C reason: Lamotrigine is considered one of the safer mood stabilizers during pregnancy. It has not been strongly associated with major congenital malformations and is often preferred for bipolar maintenance in pregnant patients.
Choice D reason: Quetiapine is an atypical antipsychotic with a relatively low teratogenic risk profile. It is frequently used in pregnancy for mood stabilization due to its favorable safety data.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Acetaminophen is generally safe to use with lithium and does not interfere with renal function or lithium clearance. It is unlikely to cause lithium toxicity or contribute to the symptoms described.
Choice B reason: Vicodin contains hydrocodone and acetaminophen. While opioids can cause sedation and nausea, they do not typically interact with lithium in a way that would cause toxicity. However, they should still be used cautiously in patients with mood disorders.
Choice C reason: Aspirin is an NSAID but has a lesser impact on renal prostaglandins compared to other NSAIDs. It is less likely to impair lithium clearance and cause toxicity, although caution is still advised.
Choice D reason: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can reduce renal clearance of lithium by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis in the kidneys. This can lead to elevated lithium levels and toxicity, especially in older adults or those with compromised renal function. The client’s symptoms—confusion, tremor, and nausea—are consistent with lithium toxicity, making ibuprofen the most likely culprit.
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