A new mom delivered her baby 2 months ago.
The baby's father calls into the office to report that his wife is angry.
She is confused and having conversations with herself.
What is the appropriate response that the nurse should make?
Please take your wife to the nearest emergency room for evaluation.
Please bring your wife to the office for medication.
Your wife needs outpatient care.
Your wife needs behavioral therapy.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Advising the caller to take his wife to the nearest emergency room for evaluation is the appropriate response. The new mom's symptoms, including confusion and auditory hallucinations (conversations with herself), are indicative of a serious mental health condition. These symptoms could be caused by postpartum psychosis, a rare but severe form of postpartum depression. Postpartum psychosis requires immediate medical attention and hospitalization for the safety of both the mother and the baby. It is essential to rule out any potential medical causes and provide appropriate psychiatric evaluation and treatment in an emergency setting.
Choice B rationale:
Bringing the wife to the office for medication is not appropriate in this situation. The symptoms described by the baby's father are severe and require urgent evaluation in an emergency room. Medication management should only be initiated after a comprehensive psychiatric evaluation, which can be conducted in an emergency room setting.
Choice C rationale:
Suggesting outpatient care is not appropriate in this case. The severity of the symptoms, including confusion and hallucinations, indicates the need for immediate evaluation in an emergency setting. Outpatient care is not sufficient for addressing acute psychiatric emergencies.
Choice D rationale:
Recommending behavioral therapy is not appropriate for a situation involving acute confusion and hallucinations. Behavioral therapy is a valuable treatment for various mental health conditions, but it is not the appropriate intervention for acute symptoms like those described in this scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Kimberly and Amanda sharing clay to each make things represents cooperative play, not parallel play. Cooperative play involves interaction and collaboration between children, whereas parallel play involves children playing side by side without interacting.
Choice B rationale:
Brian playing with his truck next to Kristina playing with her truck demonstrates parallel play. In parallel play, children play independently but alongside others, showing interest in what others are doing but without direct interaction.
Choice C rationale:
Adam playing a board game with Kyle, Steven, and Erich represents cooperative play, not parallel play. Cooperative play involves shared activities and collaboration, while parallel play involves independent activities in proximity to others.
Choice D rationale:
Danielle playing with a music box on her mother's lap is an example of solitary play, where a child plays alone without regard to others. Solitary play is common in younger children and is different from parallel play.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Koplik's spots are small white or bluish-white spots with a red halo that appear inside the mouth on the buccal mucosa. They are a characteristic sign of measles (rubeola). Measles is a highly contagious viral infection characterized by fever, cough, runny nose, and a distinctive red rash. The presence of Koplik's spots is a specific diagnostic feature of measles, making choice A incorrect for this scenario.
Choice B rationale:
Koplik's spots are a classic sign of measles (rubeola). These spots typically appear a few days before the onset of the measles rash and are highly indicative of the disease. Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that spreads through respiratory droplets. It is essential to recognize Koplik's spots as they provide an early clue to the diagnosis of measles, enabling healthcare providers to take appropriate precautions and prevent the further spread of the disease.
Choice C rationale:
Chickenpox (varicella) presents with an itchy rash that progresses to fluid-filled blisters. However, Koplik's spots are not associated with chickenpox. Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and is characterized by a widespread rash, fever, and general discomfort. Koplik's spots are specific to measles and do not occur in chickenpox.
Choice D rationale:
Exanthema subitum, also known as roseola, is a viral illness that primarily affects infants and young children. It is characterized by high fever followed by a rash. However, Koplik's spots are not a feature of roseola. The rash in roseola appears after the fever subsides and is typically pink or red, differentiating it from the small white spots seen in measles.
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