A nurse assesses a patient who is prescribed a medication that inhibits aldosterone secretion and release. For which potential complications will the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
Urine output of 1 200 mL in the last 2 hours
Blood osmolality of 250 mOsm/kg (250 mmol/kg)
Urine output of 25 mL/hr
Serum potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L:
Correct Answer : A,D,E
A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which is a potential complication of inhibiting aldosterone secretion and release. Aldosterone plays a key role in potassium regulation in the body by promoting potassium excretion in the kidneys. When aldosterone secretion is inhibited, potassium excretion decreases, leading to an accumulation of potassium in the bloodstream and resulting in hypokalemia. Symptoms of hypokalemia may include muscle weakness, cramping, irregular heartbeat, and fatigue.
B. Urine output of 1,200 mL in the last 2 hours:
This option does not directly relate to complications of inhibiting aldosterone secretion. A urine output of 1,200 mL in the last 2 hours indicates adequate urine production, which is generally a positive sign. However, in the context of inhibiting aldosterone secretion, the nurse would be more concerned about decreased urine output due to potential renal effects.
C. Blood osmolality of 250 mOsm/kg (250 mmol/kg):
Blood osmolality within the normal range (usually around 275-295 mOsm/kg) is not directly associated with complications of inhibiting aldosterone secretion. Blood osmolality reflects the concentration of solutes in the blood and is regulated by various factors, including water balance, electrolyte levels, and hormonal regulation. Inhibiting aldosterone secretion primarily affects electrolyte balance rather than blood osmolality.
D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr:
A urine output of 25 mL/hr is considered low and may indicate decreased renal perfusion or impaired kidney function. Inhibiting aldosterone secretion can affect renal function and urine output, leading to decreased urine production. Reduced urine output can contribute to fluid and electrolyte imbalances and may be a concern in patients with inhibited aldosterone secretion.
E. Serum potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L:
A serum potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is another potential complication of inhibiting aldosterone secretion. Aldosterone helps regulate potassium levels by promoting potassium excretion in the kidneys. When aldosterone secretion is inhibited, potassium excretion decreases, leading to an accumulation of potassium in the bloodstream and resulting in hyperkalemia. Symptoms of hyperkalemia may include muscle weakness, irregular heartbeat, nausea, and numbness or tingling.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A.Prone positioning and postural drainage are typically not appropriate interventions for a client 1 day postoperative following an open thoracotomy, as this could place stress on the incision site and cause discomfort or injury.
B.High-Fowler's position facilitates lung expansion, which can improve ventilation and oxygenation. Encouraging the use of an incentive spirometer and promoting coughing helps clear secretions and expand the lungs, addressing the mild respiratory acidosis indicated by the ABG results (pH 7.31 and PaCO2 50 mm Hg).
C.Increasing oxygen to 70% is not appropriate, as the PaO2 level is within normal limits (93 mm Hg). The client's issue appears to be related more to ventilation (indicated by the elevated PaCO2) rather than oxygenation, so additional oxygen would not address the underlying cause and could lead to oxygen toxicity if used long-term.
D.A nonrebreather mask delivers a high concentration of oxygen, which is not necessary in this case since the client’s PaO2 is already adequate. The primary issue is not a lack of oxygen but rather the retention of CO2, so promoting ventilation and lung expansion through positioning and respiratory exercises is more appropriate.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Keeping the wound clean and non-infected: When caring for a client with a pressure injury, the priority in the plan of care is to keep the wound clean and prevent infection. This involves regular wound assessment, proper wound cleaning techniques, application of appropriate dressings, and monitoring for signs of infection such as increased redness, swelling, warmth, or drainage. Preventing infection is crucial for promoting healing and preventing complications.
B. Application of a negative pressure wound care device: While negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) can be beneficial in promoting wound healing, it may not be the immediate priority unless specifically indicated by the healthcare provider based on the stage and characteristics of the pressure injury. Keeping the wound clean and preventing infection take precedence over NPWT in the initial plan of care.
C. Client education on wound prevention: While client education is important for preventing future pressure injuries, it is not the immediate priority when caring for an existing pressure injury. The focus initially should be on managing the current wound to promote healing and prevent complications.
D. Promoting a high carbohydrate, low protein diet: Nutritional interventions are important in wound healing, but promoting a specific diet is not the immediate priority in the plan of care for a pressure injury. Providing adequate nutrition and addressing any nutritional deficiencies may be part of the overall plan, but it is secondary to keeping the wound clean and preventing infection.
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