A nurse assesses a patient who is prescribed a medication that inhibits aldosterone secretion and release. For which potential complications will the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)

Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L

Urine output of 1 200 mL in the last 2 hours

Blood osmolality of 250 mOsm/kg (250 mmol/kg)

Urine output of 25 mL/hr

Serum potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L:

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,D,E

A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which is a potential complication of inhibiting aldosterone secretion and release. Aldosterone plays a key role in potassium regulation in the body by promoting potassium excretion in the kidneys. When aldosterone secretion is inhibited, potassium excretion decreases, leading to an accumulation of potassium in the bloodstream and resulting in hypokalemia. Symptoms of hypokalemia may include muscle weakness, cramping, irregular heartbeat, and fatigue.

B. Urine output of 1,200 mL in the last 2 hours:

This option does not directly relate to complications of inhibiting aldosterone secretion. A urine output of 1,200 mL in the last 2 hours indicates adequate urine production, which is generally a positive sign. However, in the context of inhibiting aldosterone secretion, the nurse would be more concerned about decreased urine output due to potential renal effects.

C. Blood osmolality of 250 mOsm/kg (250 mmol/kg):

Blood osmolality within the normal range (usually around 275-295 mOsm/kg) is not directly associated with complications of inhibiting aldosterone secretion. Blood osmolality reflects the concentration of solutes in the blood and is regulated by various factors, including water balance, electrolyte levels, and hormonal regulation. Inhibiting aldosterone secretion primarily affects electrolyte balance rather than blood osmolality.

D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr:

A urine output of 25 mL/hr is considered low and may indicate decreased renal perfusion or impaired kidney function. Inhibiting aldosterone secretion can affect renal function and urine output, leading to decreased urine production. Reduced urine output can contribute to fluid and electrolyte imbalances and may be a concern in patients with inhibited aldosterone secretion.

E. Serum potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L:

A serum potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is another potential complication of inhibiting aldosterone secretion. Aldosterone helps regulate potassium levels by promoting potassium excretion in the kidneys. When aldosterone secretion is inhibited, potassium excretion decreases, leading to an accumulation of potassium in the bloodstream and resulting in hyperkalemia. Symptoms of hyperkalemia may include muscle weakness, irregular heartbeat, nausea, and numbness or tingling.

Nursing Test Bank

Test Bank #1: RN Pharmacology Exams Test Bank #2: RN Medical-Surgical Exams Test Bank #3: RN Fundamentals Exams Test Bank #4: RN Maternal-Newborn Exams Test Bank #5: RN Anatomy and Physiology Exams Test Bank #6: RN Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Test Bank #7: RN Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Test Bank #9: RN Adult Health Test Bank #10: RN Dosage Calculation Test Bank #11: RN Community Health Exams Test Bank #12: RN Psychology Exams Test Bank #13: RN Nursing Care Of Children Test Bank #14: RN Foundations of Nursing Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Exam #1: RN Comprehensive predictor 2023 proctored exam Exam #2: Ati rn vati comprehensive predictor proctored exam Exam #3: Ati Rn Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Exam 2023 Exam #4: Rn Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Proctored Exam - St. Joseph Exam #5: RN Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Exam (National U CA San Diego) Exam #6: Ati rn comprehensive predictor 2023 retake proctored exam Exam #7: RN Hesi Exit Proctored Exam Exam #8: Hesi RN Exit proctored exam Exam #9: Hesi rn exit proctored exam Exam #10: Hesi Rn compass exit B proctored exam

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Metabolic acidosis:

Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low pH (<7.35) and a low bicarbonate level (<22 mEq/L) due to an excess of acids in the body or a loss of bicarbonate. However, in the given ABG values, the pH is low (7.22), but the bicarbonate level is elevated (28 mEq/L), which does not align with metabolic acidosis. Therefore, metabolic acidosis is not the correct interpretation in this case.

B. Respiratory acidosis:

Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is inadequate removal of carbon dioxide (CO2) by the lungs, leading to an accumulation of CO2 in the blood and a decrease in pH. In the ABG values provided, the pH is low (7.22), and the PaCO2 is elevated (68 mm Hg), indicating respiratory acidosis as the primary disturbance. This interpretation is supported by the elevated PaCO2 and the low pH, making it the correct choice based on the given data.

C. Respiratory alkalosis:

Respiratory alkalosis results from hyperventilation, leading to excessive elimination of CO2 and a decrease in PaCO2 levels. However, in the ABG values presented, the PaCO2 is elevated (68 mm Hg), which contradicts the expected decrease seen in respiratory alkalosis. Therefore, respiratory alkalosis is not the correct interpretation of the ABG values in this case.

D. Metabolic alkalosis:

Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a high pH (>7.45) and a high bicarbonate level (>26 mEq/L) due to excessive loss of acids or an increase in bicarbonate levels. However, in the ABG values provided, the pH is low (7.22), and the bicarbonate level is elevated (28 mEq/L), which is not consistent with metabolic alkalosis. Therefore, metabolic alkalosis is not the correct interpretation based on the given data.

A. increase the effectiveness of the skin graft. B. promote movement in the affected area. C. prevent infection and promote healing. D. promote suppuration of the wound.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Increase the effectiveness of the skin graft:

Debridement can indeed increase the effectiveness of a skin graft by preparing a clean, viable wound bed for grafting. Removing dead tissue and debris helps the skin graft adhere to healthy tissue and promotes successful graft take. However, this is not the primary purpose of debridement.

B. Promote movement in the affected area:

While debridement can indirectly contribute to promoting movement by improving wound healing and reducing pain, the primary purpose of debridement is not to promote movement in the affected area.

C. Prevent infection and promote healing:

This statement accurately reflects the primary purpose of debridement. By removing nonviable tissue, debris, and foreign material from the wound, debridement helps prevent infection by reducing the bacterial load and creating an environment conducive to healing. It also promotes granulation tissue formation and wound contraction, which are essential for wound healing.

D. Promote suppuration of the wound:

Suppuration refers to the formation and discharge of pus from a wound, often indicating infection. Debridement aims to remove necrotic tissue and prevent infection, so promoting suppuration is not a desired outcome of debridement.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A nurse assesses a patient who is prescribed a medication that inhibits aldosterone secretion and release. For which potential complications will the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse debriding a burn wound explains that the purpose of debridement is to:

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse evaluates the following arterial blood gas values in a patient: pH 7.48, PaO 98 mm Hg, PaCO 28 mm Hg, and HCO - 22 mEq/L (22 mmol/L). Which patient condition does the nurse correlate with these results?

A nurse working in the perioperative area is reviewing the Quality and Safety Education in Nursing (QSEN) competencies. Which of the foIIowing competencies should the nurse identify as the priority when caring for a client during the perioperative period?

A nurse is assessing a patient with hypokalemia, she notes that the patient's handgrip strength has diminished since the previous assessment 1 hour ago. What action does the nurse take first?

A nurse is reviewing the client's medical record in the presurgical holding area. Which of the following places the client at risk for a surgical site infection?

A nurse is caring for a client who has burns to approximately 50% of their body. Which of the following physiological changes related to the burns should the nurse anticipate? (Select all that apply.)

A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who has severe burns. Exhibits Which of the following actions should the nurse take when caring for a client who has severe burns? Select all that apply.

A nurse is assisting in identifying clients on the medical surgical floor with skin problems. Which of the following are most likely to become chronic wounds?