A patient is prescribed oral acyclovir for type 1 herpes simplex virus. What is the expected outcome if the patient is compliant with the medication regimen?
Prevents complications, such as meningitis or pneumonitis
Decreases the probability of recurrent outbreaks
Shortens the outbreak and lessens the severity of symptoms
Eliminates the likelihood of spreading the infection to others
The Correct Answer is C
A. Prevents complications, such as meningitis or pneumonitis
While oral acyclovir can be effective in managing HSV infections and reducing the severity of symptoms, it is not primarily used to prevent complications such as meningitis or pneumonitis. These complications may occur in severe cases of HSV infections, but oral acyclovir's main goal is to manage outbreaks and reduce symptoms.
B. Decreases the probability of recurrent outbreaks
Oral acyclovir can help reduce the frequency of recurrent outbreaks in individuals with HSV infections. However, it does not completely eliminate the probability of recurrent outbreaks. Some individuals may still experience occasional outbreaks even with regular use of oral acyclovir. The medication is more focused on managing outbreaks when they occur rather than preventing them entirely.
C. Shortens the outbreak and lessens the severity of symptoms
This option is the correct choice. Oral acyclovir is effective in shortening the duration of HSV outbreaks and reducing the severity of symptoms such as pain, itching, and lesions. It works by inhibiting the replication of the virus, which helps in faster healing and symptom relief. However, it does not cure the infection or eliminate the virus from the body.
D. Eliminates the likelihood of spreading the infection to others
While oral acyclovir can help manage outbreaks and reduce viral shedding, it does not completely eliminate the risk of spreading the infection to others. It can reduce the likelihood of transmission during active outbreaks, but individuals with HSV can still shed the virus and be contagious even when they are not experiencing visible symptoms. Therefore, other precautions such as practicing safe sex and avoiding close contact during outbreaks are also important for preventing transmission.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. “Call your surgeon if you have any questions at home.”
This instruction is important as it encourages the patient to seek help and clarification if they have any concerns or questions about their postoperative care at home. However, while communication with the surgeon is essential, it is not as immediately critical as ensuring proper hand hygiene when dealing with wound care and drain management.
B. ”Eat a diet high in protein, iron, zinc, and vitamin C.”
Nutritional advice is crucial for postoperative recovery, as a balanced diet high in protein, iron, zinc, and vitamin C can promote wound healing and overall recovery. However, while important for long-term recovery and healing, dietary recommendations do not directly address the immediate risk of infection or complications associated with wound care and drain management.
C. “Wash your hands before touching the drain or dressing."
This instruction is the most important in this context because proper hand hygiene is crucial for preventing infections during wound care and drain management. Clean hands significantly reduce the risk of introducing harmful bacteria or contaminants to the surgical site, which can lead to infections and other complications. Ensuring that the patient washes their hands before touching the drain or dressing is a fundamental measure for promoting wound healing and preventing postoperative complications.
D. “Be sure you keep all your postoperative appointments.”
Keeping postoperative appointments is important for ongoing assessment, monitoring, and follow-up care. However, while essential for overall recovery and management of postoperative issues, it is not as immediate or directly related to the patient's ability to manage their dressing and drain at home.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Stage III pressure injury
Stage III pressure injuries involve full-thickness skin loss, extending into the subcutaneous tissue but not through the fascia. These wounds typically present as deep craters and may involve undermining or tunneling. Non-blanchable erythema alone without visible skin loss is not characteristic of a Stage III pressure injury.
B. Stage IV pressure injury
Stage IV pressure injuries are the most severe and involve full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. These wounds often have extensive tissue damage and can be difficult to manage. Again, non-blanchable erythema without visible skin loss is not indicative of a Stage IV pressure injury.
C. Stage II pressure injury
Stage II pressure injuries involve partial-thickness skin loss with damage to the epidermis and possibly the dermis. These wounds often present as shallow open ulcers or blisters and may have characteristics such as intact or ruptured blisters. While Stage II injuries can present with erythema, non-blanchable erythema specifically indicates a Stage I injury.
D. Stage I pressure injury
Stage I pressure injuries are the earliest stage and involve non-blanchable erythema of intact skin. The skin may be warmer or cooler than surrounding tissue and may have changes in sensation. There is no visible skin loss at this stage, but the area is at risk for further injury if pressure is not relieved. Therefore, non-blanchable erythema on the heels most likely indicates a Stage I pressure injury.
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