A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client with suspected osteoporosis.
Which of the following assessment findings is the greatest risk factor for the development of this disease?
The client who is postmenopausal and is on hormone replacement therapy.
The client who consumes foods rich in calcium and vitamin D but hates going to the beach.
The client who was a professional basketball player and now has osteoarthritis.
The client who is a vegetarian and does not like milk.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Menopause leads to a significant decline in estrogen, which is a primary protective factor for bone density. Estrogen normally inhibits bone resorption by osteoclasts. However, hormone replacement therapy mitigates this risk by providing exogenous estrogen to maintain bone mineral density. Because this client is receiving treatment to counteract the hormonal deficiency, their immediate risk level is lower compared to someone with untreated nutritional deficits or lifestyle risks.
Choice B rationale
Calcium and vitamin D are the essential building blocks for bone matrix and mineralization. Vitamin D facilitates the intestinal absorption of calcium. While the client avoids the beach and likely sunlight exposure, their consumption of fortified foods provides a steady intake of these nutrients. Sunlight is a major source of vitamin D synthesis in the skin, but dietary supplementation effectively compensates, thereby maintaining serum calcium levels within the normal 8.5 to 10.5 mg/dL range.
Choice C rationale
Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease characterized by the breakdown of articular cartilage and is distinctly different from osteoporosis, which involves a decrease in bone mass. High-impact athletes like basketball players often have higher bone mineral density due to Wolff Law, which states that bone grows in response to mechanical stress. Although joint wear and tear is common, the history of weight-bearing exercise generally serves as a protective factor against future bone thinning.
Choice D rationale
This client faces a high risk due to the potential lack of bioavailable calcium and vitamin D found in dairy products. Plant-based diets require careful planning to reach the recommended daily intake of 1,000 to 1,200 mg of calcium. Chronic deficiency forces the parathyroid gland to secrete hormones that pull calcium from the bones to maintain blood levels. Without adequate intake or supplementation, this process leads to significant bone demineralization and increased skeletal fragility.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Scleroderma typically causes a thickening and hardening of the skin, known as sclerodactyly, rather than thinning. The pathophysiology involves the excessive deposition of collagen in the dermis and subcutaneous tissues. This overproduction leads to skin that feels tight, bound down, and loses its natural elasticity. Thinning of the skin is more commonly associated with chronic corticosteroid use or natural aging rather than the fibrotic process that defines the progression of systemic or localized scleroderma.
Choice B rationale
Clients with scleroderma often suffer from xerostomia, which is extreme dryness of the mouth, rather than excessive salivation. This occurs because the fibrotic process can affect the salivary glands, reducing their ability to produce adequate moisture. Furthermore, many scleroderma patients also have secondary Sjogren syndrome, which further decreases glandular secretions. Excessive salivation would be an unusual finding and is not a clinical marker for the progression of the connective tissue fibrosis seen in this disease.
Choice C rationale
While some facial changes occur in scleroderma, such as a mask like appearance or restricted mouth opening, periorbital edema is not a standard expectation. Periorbital edema is more frequently associated with renal failure, nephrotic syndrome, or inflammatory conditions like dermatomyositis. In scleroderma, the skin around the eyes is more likely to become tight and taut due to collagen accumulation. The fibrotic nature of the disease usually results in tissue contraction and firmness rather than fluid accumulation.
Choice D rationale
Decreased range of motion is a common finding in scleroderma due to the hardening of the skin and fibrosis of the underlying connective tissues and tendons. As the skin becomes increasingly tight and rigid, it restricts the movement of the joints beneath it. This contracture development significantly impacts the functional mobility of the hands and limbs. Assessing for joint flexibility is essential to document disease progression as the fibrosis moves from the skin into deeper musculoskeletal structures.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A refraction test is used to determine a client optical prescription for eyeglasses or contact lenses. It involves the use of a phoropter to measure how light waves are bent as they pass through the cornea and lens. This test identifies refractive errors like myopia, hyperopia, and astigmatism. It does not provide information about the health of the retina or the presence of maculopathy, which is the primary concern in cases of suspected macular degeneration.
Choice B rationale
The Snellen chart is the standard tool for measuring distance visual acuity. It requires a client to read letters of decreasing size from a distance of 20 feet. While it can detect a general decline in vision, it is not specific to macular degeneration. A client with maculopathy might still have relatively good peripheral vision but struggle with central tasks. The Snellen chart evaluates overall clarity but lacks the precision needed to identify central scotomas.
Choice C rationale
The Amsler grid is a diagnostic tool consisting of a grid of horizontal and vertical lines used specifically to monitor the central visual field. Clients with macular degeneration will report that the lines appear wavy, distorted, or missing, a phenomenon known as metamorphopsia. Because the macula is responsible for sharp, central vision, this test is the most sensitive and appropriate bedside or clinic tool for detecting early changes and progression of this specific retinal condition.
Choice D rationale
Intraocular pressure measurement, typically performed via tonometry, is the gold standard for screening and monitoring glaucoma. Normal intraocular pressure ranges from 10 to 21 mmHg. Elevated pressure can lead to optic nerve damage, but it is not a diagnostic marker for macular degeneration. Macular degeneration is a disease of the retinal tissue itself, often related to aging and oxidative stress, rather than the fluid pressure dynamics inside the anterior chamber.
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