A nurse in an ophthalmology clinic is interviewing a client who was referred by his primary care provider for suspicion of cataracts. Which of the following findings is consistent with manifestations of cataracts?
Loss of peripheral vision
A decreased ability to perceive colors
Loss of central vision
Seeing bright flashes of light and floaters
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because loss of peripheral vision is not a manifestation of cataracts, but of glaucoma. Glaucoma is a condition that causes increased pressure inside the eye and damage to the optic nerve, which can lead to loss of vision in the outer edges of the visual field. The nurse should assess the client's intraocular pressure and visual field test results to rule out glaucoma.
Choice B reason: This is correct because a decreased ability to perceive colors is a manifestation of cataracts. Cataracts are a condition that causes clouding or opacity of the lens, which is the transparent structure behind the pupil that focuses light onto the retina. Cataracts can reduce the clarity and contrast of vision and make colors appear faded or yellowish. The nurse should ask the client about any changes in color perception or brightness of objects.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because loss of central vision is not a manifestation of cataracts but of macular degeneration. Macular degeneration is a condition that affects the macula, which is the central part of the retina that is responsible for sharp and detailed vision. Macular degeneration can cause blurred or distorted central vision, difficulty reading or recognizing faces, or dark spots in the visual field. The nurse should assess the client's visual acuity and fundoscopic examination results to rule out macular degeneration.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because seeing bright flashes of light and floaters is not a manifestation of cataracts but of retinal detachment. Retinal detachment is a condition that occurs when the retina, which is the layer of tissue at the back of the eye that converts light into nerve impulses, separates from its underlying support tissue. Retinal detachment can cause sudden flashes of light, floaters, or shadows in the visual field. The nurse should refer the client to an ophthalmologist immediately if retinal detachment is suspected.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: The burned area is yellow in color with severe edema is not a finding of a deep partial-thickness burn, but a superficial partial-thickness burn. A superficial partial-thickness burn involves the epidermis and the upper layer of the dermis, causing pain, redness, swelling, and blistering.
Choice B Reason: The burned area is black in color and pain is absent is not a finding of a deep partial-thickness burn, but a full-thickness burn. A full-thickness burn involves the epidermis, dermis, and underlying tissues, causing necrosis, charred skin, and loss of sensation.
Choice C Reason:This description aligns with a superficial partial-thickness (first-degree or mild second-degree) burn rather than a deep partial-thickness burn. Superficial partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis and the upper portion of the dermis. These burns appear pink or red, often accompanied by moisture and blister formation due to fluid leakage from damaged capillaries. They are painful because nerve endings remain intact. Healing occurs within 10 to 21 days without significant scarring.
Choice D Reason:Deep partial-thickness burns extend deeper into the dermis, damaging a larger portion of skin structures, including sweat glands and hair follicles. These burns typically appear red or white and may have a soft eschar (dead tissue), which differentiates them from more superficial burns that do not develop eschar. Unlike full-thickness burns, nerve endings remain partially intact, so the patient may still experience some pain. These burns take more than 21 days to heal and often require skin grafting to prevent complications such as contractures or hypertrophic scarring.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because the nurse should not include this in teaching. Massaging the affected side multiple times a day can trigger an acute onset of trigeminal neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition that causes severe pain in one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V), which innervates the face. The pain can be triggered by touch, pressure, or movement of the face. The nurse should advise the client to avoid touching or stimulating the affected side.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because the nurse should not include this in teaching. Applying ice directly to
the skin can trigger an acute onset of trigeminal neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia can be triggered by temperature changes or cold stimuli on the face. The nurse should advise the client to avoid exposure to cold air or wind and to protect their face with a scarf or mask.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because the nurse should not include this in teaching. Providing pureed consistency foods can trigger an acute onset of trigeminal neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia can be triggered by chewing, swallowing, or talking. The nurse should advise the client to eat soft foods that do not require much chewing and to avoid hot or spicy foods that can irritate the mouth.
Choice D reason: This is correct because the nurse should include this in teaching. Considering alternative therapies such as yoga, biofeedback or meditation can help prevent triggering an acute onset of trigeminal neural
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