A nurse is administering betamethasone to a client who is in pre-term labor at 28 weeks of gestation.
The nurse should explain that the purpose of this medication is to:
Reduce inflammation in the uterus
Enhance fetal lung maturity
Prevent infection in the amniotic fluid
Increase blood flow to the placenta
The Correct Answer is B
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid that is given to pregnant women who are at risk of preterm delivery to enhance fetal lung maturity. Betamethasone stimulates the production of surfactant, a substance that lubricates the lungs and prevents them from collapsing when the baby breathes. This reduces the risk of respiratory distress syndrome and other complications in preterm infants.
Choice A is wrong because betamethasone does not reduce inflammation in the uterus.
Choice C is wrong because betamethasone does not prevent infection in the amniotic fluid.
Choice D is wrong because betamethasone does not increase blood flow to the placenta.
Normal ranges for gestational age are 37 to 42 weeks.
Preterm birth is defined as delivery before 37 weeks of gestation. Antenatal corticosteroids are recommended for women between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation who are at risk of preterm delivery within 7 days, and may be considered for women at 23 weeks of gestation or between 34 and 37 weeks of gestation depending on the clinical scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Magnesium sulfate is a tocolytic drug that inhibits uterine activity and relaxes smooth muscles.The goal of magnesium sulfate therapy for a client who is in pre-term labor is to stop or reduce the frequency and intensity of contractions.
Choice B is wrong because the client’s blood pressure decreases to within normal limits.
Magnesium sulfate is not an antihypertensive drug and does not lower blood pressure.It is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia or eclampsia.
Choice C is wrong because the client’s deep tendon reflexes are 2+.
This is a normal finding and does not indicate the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate therapy.A decrease or loss of deep tendon reflexes may indicate magnesium toxicity, which is a serious complication that requires immediate intervention.
Choice D is wrong because the client’s urine output increases to more than 30 mL/hr.
This is also a normal finding and does not indicate the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate therapy.A decrease in urine output may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity, which are both adverse effects of the drug.
The normal range for serum magnesium level is 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L or 1.8 to 3 mg/dL.The therapeutic range for magnesium sulfate management is 5 to 8 mg/dL.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Creatinine clearance.
Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and suppresses uterine contractions.However, it can also causerenal failurein the fetus and the mother by reducing renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate.
Therefore, the nurse should monitor the creatinine clearance, which is a measure of renal function, while the client is receiving this medication.
Choice A is wrong because indomethacin does not affect platelet count or coagulation.
Choice C is wrong because indomethacin does not affect liver function tests.
Choice D is wrong because indomethacin does not affect blood glucose levels.
Normal ranges for creatinine clearance are 88-128 mL/min for women and 97-137 mL/min for men.Normal ranges for platelet count are 150,000-450,000 cells/mm3.
Normal ranges for liver function tests vary depending on the specific test, but some common ones are: alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 7-55 U/L, aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 8-48 U/L, alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 45-115 U/L, total bilirubin 0.1-1.2 mg/dL.
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