A nurse is admitting a client to the medical-surgical unit.
Based on the nurse's assessment findings, click to highlight the specific interventions and orders the nurse would expect to implement for this client.
- Administer furosemide 40 mg via IV push once.
- Begin an IV infusion of normal saline (NS) at 150 mL/hr.
- Administer digoxin 0.25 mg via IV push NOW.
- Monitor daily weights.
- Call a code STEMI.
- Monitor strict intake and output.
- Prepare the client for an echocardiogram.
- Prepare the client for a radiofrequency catheter ablation.
Administer furosemide 40 mg via IV push once.
Begin an IV infusion of normal saline (NS) at 150 mL/hr.
Administer digoxin 0.25 mg via IV push NOW.
Monitor daily weights.
Call a code STEMI.
Monitor strict intake and output.
Prepare the client for an echocardiogram.
Prepare the client for a radiofrequency catheter ablation.
The Correct Answer is ["A","D","F","G"]
A. Administering furosemide 40 mg via IV push once is appropriate for treating fluid overload, as evidenced by pitting edema and crackles in the lungs, common in heart failure.
B. An IV infusion of normal saline (NS) at 150 mL/hr is not appropriate for this client as it can exacerbate fluid overload and worsen heart failure symptoms.
C. Administering digoxin 0.25 mg via IV push NOW may be indicated, but considering the client's low pulse rate (55/min), caution is necessary due to the risk of digoxin toxicity and bradycardia.
D. Monitoring daily weights is crucial for assessing fluid balance in heart failure patients and detecting any changes in fluid status.
E. Calling a code STEMI is not appropriate as the client does not exhibit signs of a STEMI; troponin levels are not elevated, and there is no indication of an acute myocardial infarction.
F. Monitoring strict intake and output helps in managing fluid balance and ensuring accurate assessment of the client's fluid status.
G. Preparing the client for an echocardiogram is appropriate to assess cardiac function and evaluate the severity of heart failure.
H. Radiofrequency catheter ablation is not indicated for this client as it is typically used to treat arrhythmias, not heart failure or fluid overload.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. While a platelet transfusion can temporarily increase platelet counts, it does not reduce the destruction of platelets in ITP and is generally not effective as a long-term solution.
B. Replacement of ADAMTS-13 is relevant in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), not ITP. It is not used for reducing platelet destruction in ITP.
C. Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin overdose and does not address the platelet destruction in ITP.
D. A laparoscopic splenectomy is often considered for clients with ITP who do not respond to medication therapy. The spleen is a primary site for platelet destruction, and its removal can reduce the destruction of platelets, leading to increased platelet counts.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Transporting the patient to the cardiac catheterization lab for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is the priority intervention for a patient with an ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). PCI is the preferred treatment to restore blood flow to the affected coronary artery.
B. Aggressive diuresis and digoxin are not appropriate for the acute management of a STEMI. Diuresis may be used in cases of heart failure but is not the immediate priority.
C. Synchronized cardioversion and radiofrequency catheter ablation are treatments for certain arrhythmias but are not indicated for the acute management of STEMI.
D. Administering gemfibrozil, a lipid-lowering agent, and preparing for a stress test are not appropriate interventions in the acute setting of a STEMI. Immediate reperfusion therapy is necessary.
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