A nurse is assessing a 2-year-old male toddler in a pediatric clinic during a well-child checkup.
Exhibits
After reviewing the toddler’s current medical record, which of the following interventions should the nurse expect the provider to prescribe?
Protective environment
Blood transfusion
Iron supplementation
Antibiotic continuation
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale: A protective environment is typically indicated for immunocompromised clients, such as those with neutropenia or undergoing chemotherapy, not for uncomplicated anemia. The toddler’s white blood cell count is within the normal range of 5,000 to 10,000/mm³, and no evidence of infection risk or severe immunodeficiency is present. Pallor and low hemoglobin are consistent with iron deficiency anemia, which does not require isolation precautions unless additional hematologic compromise is identified.
Choice B rationale: Blood transfusions are reserved for cases of severe anemia with hemodynamic instability, cardiac compromise, or hemoglobin levels below 7 g/dL. This toddler’s hemoglobin is 8.1 g/dL, which while low, does not meet transfusion threshold in a stable, asymptomatic pediatric patient. Transfusion carries risks like iron overload and alloimmunization, making it inappropriate for mild to moderate anemia. Instead, correction through dietary modification and iron supplementation is preferred for age-related iron-deficiency anemia.
Choice C rationale: Iron supplementation is the standard therapy for iron deficiency anemia, especially in toddlers consuming excessive cow’s milk, which lacks iron and can cause occult intestinal blood loss. Hemoglobin of 8.1 g/dL is below the normal pediatric range of 9.5 to 14 g/dL, confirming anemia. Iron replenishment stimulates erythropoiesis by enabling hemoglobin synthesis. Supplementation corrects deficiency over time and should be paired with dietary education to limit milk to <24 oz/day and include iron-rich foods.
Choice D rationale: Continuing antibiotics is unnecessary unless there is ongoing infection. The toddler has recently completed antibiotic therapy for otitis media, and current symptoms do not suggest infection recurrence. Vital signs are stable and the white blood cell count is within normal limits (5,000–10,000/mm³), indicating no acute bacterial process. Antibiotic overuse may disrupt gut flora, impair iron absorption, and contribute to resistant bacterial strains, which is contraindicated in this clinical scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Diarrhea is a common side effect of clozapine, a second-generation antipsychotic medication. It is usually a mild to moderate symptom and does not typically warrant immediate reporting to the provider unless it is severe, persistent, or accompanied by other concerning symptoms like dehydration. It can often be managed with dietary adjustments or over-the-counter antidiarrheal medications, and it does not usually indicate a serious or life-threatening adverse reaction.
Choice B rationale
A fever in a client taking clozapine is a critical finding that must be immediately reported to the provider. Fever can be an early symptom of agranulocytosis, a severe and potentially fatal adverse effect characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Agranulocytosis makes the client highly susceptible to severe infections. A fever may also indicate the onset of neuroleptic malignant syndrome, another serious and life-threatening condition.
Choice C rationale
Polyuria, which is excessive urination, can be a symptom of various conditions but is not a primary concern or contraindication for clozapine administration. It can be associated with increased fluid intake due to xerostomia (dry mouth), a common side effect of clozapine. It does not typically indicate a severe, life-threatening adverse effect like agranulocytosis or neuroleptic malignant syndrome, and thus does not require immediate reporting.
Choice D rationale
Diaphoresis, or excessive sweating, is a frequent side effect of clozapine. It is often related to the drug's anticholinergic effects and thermoregulatory dysfunction. While it can be uncomfortable for the client and may require management, it is not an immediate sign of a life-threatening condition like agranulocytosis or neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Therefore, it does not typically require an immediate report to the provider. *.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A nonstress test (NST) does not require the client to fast. The client can eat and drink normally, and sometimes a sugary beverage is even encouraged to stimulate fetal movement, as the test aims to record fetal heart rate accelerations in response to these movements.
Choice B rationale
The nonstress test is a screening tool used to assess fetal well-being by measuring the fetal heart rate's response to fetal movement. It does not provide information about genetic problems, which are typically identified through genetic testing or prenatal diagnostic procedures such as amniocentesis.
Choice C rationale
A key component of the nonstress test involves the mother noting fetal movements. The client is given a marker, often a button, to press each time she feels the baby move. This action correlates the mother's perception of movement with the fetal heart rate accelerations recorded on the monitor.
Choice D rationale
Oxytocin is not administered during a nonstress test. The purpose of this test is to assess the baby's baseline heart rate and accelerations without external stimulation. Oxytocin is used in a contraction stress test, which is a different procedure to evaluate how the baby handles uterine contractions. *.
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