A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has GERD.
Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Choice A rationale

Verifying the clarity and color of the eye drops is a critical safety step to ensure the medication has not been compromised. Eye drops should be clear and colorless unless specified otherwise. Any discoloration or particulate matter indicates that the solution may be contaminated or expired and should not be administered, preventing potential harm or infection to the client.

Choice B rationale

Pulling the lower lid down creates a small pocket, or conjunctival sac, which is the proper site for medication administration. This technique prevents the eye drops from immediately flowing out of the eye, allowing for maximum absorption of the medication. It also protects the cornea from direct injury by the applicator, which can be sensitive and easily scratched.

Choice C rationale

Applying gentle pressure to the punctum, the small opening in the corner of the eye, for 30 to 60 seconds after instillation prevents systemic absorption of the medication. This is particularly important for drugs like timolol, a beta-blocker, as systemic absorption can lead to adverse effects on the heart and lungs, such as bradycardia and bronchospasm.

Choice D rationale

Tilting the client's head backward facilitates proper administration by allowing gravity to assist in directing the eye drop into the conjunctival sac. This position also helps to prevent the drop from immediately rolling out of the eye or onto the client's cheek, ensuring the medication is retained in the correct location for therapeutic effect.

Choice E rationale

Administering the prescribed number of drops directly into the conjunctival sac ensures the client receives the correct dosage. The nurse should avoid touching the tip of the dropper to the client's eye or eyelashes to prevent cross-contamination of the bottle. This step is essential for both the therapeutic efficacy and safety of the medication administration. *.

Choice A rationale

Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Its mechanism of action involves blocking aldosterone receptors in the kidney's distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct, leading to increased sodium and water excretion while retaining potassium. Consequently, taking a potassium supplement concurrently would dangerously increase the risk of hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by high blood potassium levels (normal range is 3.5-5.0 mEq/L), which can cause life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias.

Choice B rationale

Spironolactone's primary effect is on sodium and potassium balance, not calcium. Calcium supplements do not typically interact with spironolactone in a way that would cause a significant, adverse change in calcium levels. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid supplements that directly alter the electrolytes affected by the medication's mechanism of action.

Choice C rationale

Spironolactone does not significantly impact iron metabolism. Therefore, a client taking an iron supplement would not be at increased risk of an adverse interaction. Iron supplements are generally well-tolerated with spironolactone, and there is no contraindication for their concurrent use. The focus of client teaching should be on electrolytes directly affected by the medication.

Choice D rationale

Spironolactone does not have a direct or clinically significant interaction with magnesium supplements. While diuretics can sometimes affect magnesium levels, spironolactone's primary action is on potassium and sodium. Therefore, there is no major contraindication for the use of magnesium supplements, unlike the life-threatening risk associated with potassium supplementation. *.