A nurse is assessing a client at a dermatology clinic.
Which of the following findings places the client at risk for developing malignant melanoma?
Age 19 to 30 years.
Dark hair.
Female gender.
History of repeated sunburn.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
While individuals aged 19 to 30 years are generally at a lower risk for malignant melanoma compared to older adults, melanoma can still occur at any age, especially with certain risk factors. However, age alone does not significantly increase the risk of developing malignant melanoma without additional risk factors.
Choice B rationale
Hair color has minimal impact on the risk of developing malignant melanoma. Although individuals with fair skin and light hair have a higher risk of sunburn and subsequent melanoma, having dark hair does not significantly reduce the risk compared to other factors.
Choice C rationale
Female gender does not inherently increase the risk of developing malignant melanoma. Both males and females are at risk, although certain lifestyle factors and behaviors, such as sun exposure, can influence individual risk levels regardless of gender.
Choice D rationale
A history of repeated sunburn significantly increases the risk of developing malignant melanoma. Ultraviolet (UV) radiation from sunburns causes DNA damage in skin cells, leading to mutations that can result in melanoma. Repeated sunburns exacerbate this risk, making it a critical factor in melanoma development.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Atrial depolarization refers to the electrical activation of the atria, which is depicted by the P wave on an ECG, not the T wave. The P wave represents the contraction phase of the atria as it pumps blood into the ventricles. Therefore, this option is incorrect for the T wave.
Choice B rationale
Atrial repolarization is the process of the atria returning to their resting state. This repolarization is generally obscured by the QRS complex on an ECG and is not associated with the T wave. Thus, this answer choice is also incorrect.
Choice C rationale
Ventricular depolarization is represented by the QRS complex on an ECG. It indicates the ventricles are contracting to pump blood to the lungs and the rest of the body. Therefore, it does not correlate with the T wave.
Choice D rationale
Ventricular repolarization is indicated by the T wave on an ECG. This phase signifies the ventricles returning to their resting state after the contraction. It is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the T wave's function.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Without treatment, glaucoma can lead to blindness due to the progressive damage it causes to the optic nerve. Elevated intraocular pressure damages the optic nerve fibers, leading to peripheral vision loss and eventually total blindness if untreated.
Choice B rationale
Double vision is not a common symptom of glaucoma. Instead, glaucoma typically presents with symptoms like gradual peripheral vision loss, eye pain, and halos around lights.
Choice C rationale
Glaucoma is primarily caused by increased intraocular pressure, either due to overproduction of aqueous humor or improper drainage, not inadequate fluid production.
Choice D rationale
Use of eye drops helps to control intraocular pressure but does not improve vision; it helps to prevent further damage to the optic nerve.
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