The nurse is examining an elderly client and notes an exaggerated curvature of the thoracic spine.
The nurse should document this finding as which of the following?
Lordosis.
Scoliosis.
Spinal dysplasia.
Kyphosis.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Lordosis refers to an excessive inward curvature of the lumbar spine, often referred to as swayback. This condition causes the lower back to arch more than normal, leading to a prominent abdomen and buttocks. Lordosis does not affect the thoracic spine and does not cause an exaggerated curvature in that region.
Choice B rationale
Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine that results in an S- or C-shaped curve. It can occur in the thoracic, lumbar, or cervical regions of the spine. Scoliosis involves a sideways deviation rather than an exaggerated curvature in the thoracic spine.
Choice C rationale
Spinal dysplasia is a broad term that refers to various congenital abnormalities affecting the development of the spine. It includes conditions such as spina bifida, kyphosis, and scoliosis, each with distinct characteristics. The term itself does not specify an exaggerated thoracic curvature.
Choice D rationale
Kyphosis is an exaggerated outward curvature of the thoracic spine, resulting in a rounded or hunched back appearance. This condition is common in elderly individuals and can be caused by factors such as osteoporosis, vertebral fractures, or degenerative changes. It leads to a noticeable forward bend of the upper back.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The abducens cranial nerve (CN VI) controls the lateral rectus muscle of the eye, which is responsible for outward movement. It is not assessed using the Snellen visual acuity chart. The function of this nerve is tested through the evaluation of lateral eye movements.
Choice B rationale
The optic cranial nerve (CN II) is responsible for vision, including visual acuity and visual fields. It is assessed using the Snellen visual acuity chart to determine how well a person can see at various distances. This test evaluates the clarity and sharpness of vision, making CN II the correct answer.
Choice C rationale
The trochlear cranial nerve (CN IV) controls the superior oblique muscle, which helps with downward and inward eye movements. It is not assessed using the Snellen visual acuity chart but rather through the evaluation of eye movements and alignment.
Choice D rationale
The oculomotor cranial nerve (CN III) controls most of the eye's movements, including those of the superior, inferior, and medial rectus muscles, as well as the inferior oblique muscle. It is also responsible for controlling the pupil's response to light. The Snellen visual acuity chart does not assess the function of CN III, as it focuses on visual clarity and acuity.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Rhonchi are low-pitched, continuous breath sounds that are often indicative of secretions in the large airways. These sounds may change or clear with coughing, so the nurse should have the patient cough and then auscultate again to reassess the presence of rhonchi.
Choice B rationale
Wheezes are high-pitched, musical sounds heard primarily during expiration. They are caused by narrowed airways, typically due to asthma or other obstructive lung conditions. Wheezes do not usually clear with coughing and require specific treatments to address airway constriction.
Choice C rationale
Crackles are discontinuous, popping sounds heard during inspiration and are associated with fluid in the alveoli, such as in conditions like pneumonia or heart failure. Crackles are not typically cleared by coughing and may persist despite the patient's efforts to clear their airways.
Choice D rationale
Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh sound heard during inspiration, often indicating upper airway obstruction. Stridor is a medical emergency and requires immediate intervention to secure the airway. It does not clear with coughing and signifies a critical respiratory issue. .
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