A nurse is assessing a client prior to administering furosemide. For which of the following findings should the nurse withhold the medication and contact the provider?
Widened QRS complex on ECG
Blood pressure 168/74 mmHg
Inverted T waves on ECG
Urinary output of 30 mL in 3 hr
The Correct Answer is C
Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic that facilitates the excretion of water, sodium, and potassium by inhibiting the Na-K-2Cl symporter. Its use is frequently associated with profound electrolyte imbalances, particularly hypokalemia, which can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias and altered myocardial repolarization.
Rationale:
A. A widened QRS complex is usually associated with hyperkalemia or bundle branch blocks rather than the hypokalemia caused by furosemide. Since furosemide promotes potassium excretion, it would typically be used to help lower potassium levels in some clinical scenarios. While a widened QRS is a significant finding, it does not represent the specific electrolyte risk associated with the immediate administration of a loop diuretic.
B. A blood pressure of 168/74 mmHg indicates hypertension, which is often an indication for, rather than a contraindication to, the administration of furosemide. The diuretic will help reduce the circulating fluid volume, thereby lowering the systemic blood pressure. The nurse should administer the medication as prescribed to treat the elevated pressure, provided the patient is not displaying signs of acute dehydration or shock.
C. Inverted T waves on an electrocardiogram are a classic sign of hypokalemia, indicating that the patient's potassium levels are dangerously low. Because furosemide aggressively flushes potassium out of the body, giving it to a patient who is already hypokalemic could lead to fatal ventricular arrhythmias. The nurse must withhold the dose and contact the provider to address the electrolyte deficit before proceeding with diuresis.
D. A urinary output of 30 mL over 3 hr is low (10 mL/hr) and may suggest oliguria or renal insufficiency, but it is often the reason furosemide is being given. The drug is intended to stimulate the kidneys to increase urine production in patients with fluid overload. While the nurse should monitor renal function, low output alone is not as immediate a contraindication as the cardiac signs of severe electrolyte depletion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Hydromorphone is a potent opioid analgesicthat provides relief through the stimulation of mu-opioid receptorsin the central nervous system. A dangerous side effect is respiratory depression, where the drug decreases the responsiveness of brainstem respiratory centers to carbon dioxide levels.
Rationale:
A.Prednisone is a corticosteroid used for its anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive properties. It has no pharmacological ability to reverse the central nervous system depression caused by opioid agonists like hydromorphone. Administering prednisone to a client with a depressed respiratory rate would provide no benefit in managing the immediate risk of respiratory failure or apnea.
B.Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that competitively binds to mu-opioid receptors, rapidly displacing opioid molecules like hydromorphone. It is the gold standard for reversing opioid-induced respiratory depression, restoring a normal breathing rate and level of consciousness within minutes. The nurse must monitor the client closely after administration, as the half-life of naloxone is shorter than hydromorphone.
C.Epinephrine is a catecholamine used in the treatment of anaphylaxis, cardiac arrest, and severe hypotension. While it can stimulate the cardiovascular system, it is not a reversal agent for opioid toxicity. Using epinephrine for a depressed respiratory rate would not address the underlying receptor-level blockade causing the decreased ventilation and could cause unnecessary cardiac strain.
D.Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist used specifically to reverse the effects of drugs like diazepam or midazolam. It does not bind to opioid receptors and therefore cannot reverse the respiratory depression caused by hydromorphone. The nurse must correctly identify the offending drug class to ensure the proper antagonist is selected for emergency intervention.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Citalopram is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor(SSRI) used to manage major depressive disorder by increasing serotonin levelsin the synaptic cleft. While generally well-tolerated, SSRIs can cause serotonin syndrome, a potentially fatal condition characterized by altered mental status, autonomic instability, and neuromuscular hyperactivity. Early detection of neurological changes is vital.
Rationale:
A.Bruxism, or involuntary teeth grinding, is a known side effect of SSRIs that typically occurs during sleep. While it can cause dental wear and jaw pain, it is not a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate reporting. The nurse can suggest a mouth guard or a dosage adjustment during a routine follow-up with the provider to manage this specific discomfort.
B.Insomnia is a frequent side effect of citalopram due to the stimulating effects of increased serotonin in certain brain pathways. While significant for the client's quality of life, it is an expected reaction that often subsides after several weeks of therapy. It does not carry the same degree of clinical urgency as symptoms indicating acute toxicity or systemic physiological distress.
C.Weight loss can occur during the initial phase of citalopram therapy due to decreased appetite or nausea. While the nurse should monitor the client's nutritional intake and weight over time, it is a gradual process rather than an acute crisis. It is considered a manageable side effect that rarely requires immediate medical intervention unless the weight loss becomes extreme.
D.Confusion is a priority finding because it may indicate the onset of serotonin syndromeor significant hyponatremia, which are serious complications of SSRI therapy. Altered mental status is a "red flag" symptom that suggests systemic toxicity rather than a benign side effect. The nurse must report confusion immediately to ensure the client is evaluated for potentially life-threatening drug reactions.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
