A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure. The client has moist lung sounds, bounding pulse, increased blood pressure, and pitting peripheral edema. Which of the following is the nurse's priority intervention?
Administer diuretics.
Limit the client's fluid intake.
Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Place the client on a low-sodium diet.
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale:
A. Administer diuretics: The client's symptoms, moist lung sounds, bounding pulse, elevated blood pressure, and pitting edema indicate fluid volume overload. Administering prescribed diuretics is the priority intervention to rapidly reduce intravascular and interstitial fluid volume and relieve pulmonary congestion.
B. Limit the client's fluid intake: Fluid restriction helps manage ongoing fluid retention but does not address the immediate concern of volume overload. It is a supportive measure rather than the initial priority in acute decompensated heart failure.
C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter: While catheterization may help monitor output, it does not treat the underlying fluid excess. Inserting a catheter without addressing the fluid accumulation first does not provide immediate symptom relief.
D. Place the client on a low-sodium diet: A low-sodium diet is important for long-term management of heart failure, but it does not provide the prompt fluid removal needed in this acute situation. Immediate diuresis is necessary to reduce cardiac workload and respiratory distress.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. "You should avoid vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding.": Vaginal spermicides are generally considered safe during breastfeeding. They do not contain hormones and do not affect milk production, so avoidance is not typically necessary unless the client has specific contraindications.
B. "The lactation amenorrhea method is effective for your first year postpartum.": This method is only effective during the first 6 months postpartum, provided the mother is exclusively breastfeeding and menstruation has not resumed. Beyond that period, the risk of ovulation increases and it becomes unreliable.
C. "Place the transdermal birth control patch on your upper outer arm.": The patch can be applied to several sites, including the upper outer arm, abdomen, buttock, or upper torso. This is an appropriate instruction and part of standard patient teaching for transdermal contraceptive use.
D. "You can continue to use the diaphragm you used before your pregnancy.": The diaphragm often requires refitting postpartum due to changes in vaginal tone and cervix position. Using the same diaphragm without evaluation could reduce effectiveness and increase risk of unintended pregnancy.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. "Opioids should not be given to older adults.": Opioids can be given to older adults when necessary, but with caution. The dose may need adjustment due to age-related changes in metabolism and increased sensitivity, not outright avoidance.
B. "Pain perception is decreased in older adult clients.": Pain perception does not decrease with age. Older adults may have conditions that affect communication or cognition, but their ability to feel pain remains intact, and they can still experience significant discomfort.
C. "Older adults report pain less frequently than younger clients.": Older adults often underreport pain due to beliefs that pain is a normal part of aging or fear of treatment consequences. This makes active assessment and trust-building essential in managing their pain effectively.
D. "Older adults require higher doses of pain medication.": Older adults typically require lower or more carefully titrated doses due to slower metabolism, decreased renal clearance, and heightened drug sensitivity, especially to central nervous system effects.
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