A nurse is assessing a client who has received oxycodone. The nurse notes that the client's respiratory rate is 8/min. The nurse should identify that which of the following is the pathophysiology for the client's respiratory rate?
Oxycodone blocks the sodium channel suspending nerve conduction.
Oxycodone inhibits prostaglandin synthesis.
Oxycodone promotes vasodilation of cranial arteries.
Oxycodone uses central nervous system depression.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Oxycodone primarily exerts its analgesic effects through binding to opioid receptors and modulating neurotransmitter release, rather than blocking sodium channels.
B. Oxycodone does not directly inhibit prostaglandin synthesis; this mechanism is associated with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
C. Oxycodone does not promote vasodilation of cranial arteries. This mechanism is more commonly associated with medications used to treat migraines, such as triptans.
D. Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic that acts centrally on the nervous system to depress respiratory drive, leading to respiratory depression, especially at higher doses.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The correct order is
- wipe off tops of insulin vials with alcohol sponge.
- draw back amount of air into the syringe that equals total dose.
- inject air equal to NPH dose into NPH vial. ...
- air equal to regular dose into regular vial.
- invert regular insulin bottle and withdraw regular insulin dose.
- without adding more air into NPH vial, carefully withdraw NPH dose
B. Withdraw the regular insulin from the vial: This step should occur after injecting air into the regular insulin vial. The nurse should draw up the regular insulin before drawing up the NPH
insulin.
C. Inject air into the regular insulin vial: Inject air into the regular insulin vial is not thecorrect first step to avoid contamination of the clear insulin with cloudy insulin..
D. Withdraw the NPH insulin from the vial: This step should occur after withdrawing the regular insulin. The nurse should draw up the NPH insulin after drawing up the regular insulin to ensure the correct sequence and dosage.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The client has a history of anaphylaxis following a bee sting: This finding is not directly related to the safety of taking alendronate for osteoporosis.
B. The client has a first-degree relative who has Paget's disease: While family history is
important in assessing the risk of osteoporosis, it is not a direct safety risk for taking alendronate.
C. The client is postmenopausal: Postmenopausal status is a common indication for the use of alendronate to prevent or treat osteoporosis. It is not a safety risk.
D. The client has immobility that restricts her to a supine position: Immobility, especially in a supine position, can increase the risk of esophageal irritation and reflux when taking alendronate. Therefore, this finding poses a safety risk for the client when taking this medication.
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