A nurse is caring for a client who has a life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmia. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?
Verapamil
Digoxin
Dopamine
Amiodarone
The Correct Answer is D
A. Verapamil: Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker primarily used to treat supraventricular
tachycardias, not ventricular dysrhythmias. It is not typically used for life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias.
B. Digoxin: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used primarily for atrial fibrillation and heart failure, not ventricular dysrhythmias. It is not typically used for life-threatening ventricular
dysrhythmias.
C. Dopamine: Dopamine is a sympathomimetic medication used for hemodynamic support in hypotension and shock. While it may be used in some cases of unstable bradycardia, it is not the first-line medication for life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias.
D. Amiodarone: Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medication used for the treatment of various ventricular and supraventricular dysrhythmias, including life-threatening ventricular
dysrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. It is often used as a first-line medication for these conditions due to its efficacy and safety profile. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate administering amiodarone for the client's life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Constipation: Constipation is not a commonly reported adverse effect of clopidogrel.
Therefore, it is not necessary to instruct the client to monitor and report constipation as an adverse effect.
B. Weight loss: Weight loss is not a commonly reported adverse effect of clopidogrel. Therefore, it is not necessary to instruct the client to monitor and report weight loss as an adverse effect.
C. Bruising: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that inhibits platelet aggregation.
Therefore, one of the potential adverse effects is an increased risk of bleeding, which can
manifest as easy bruising or prolonged bleeding from minor injuries. Instructing the client to monitor and report bruising is important for early detection of bleeding complications.
D. Blurred vision: Blurred vision is not a commonly reported adverse effect of clopidogrel.
Therefore, it is not necessary to instruct the client to monitor and report blurred vision as an adverse effect.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The client's liver function test results are within the expected reference range: While monitoring liver function tests is essential for clients taking isoniazid and rifampin due to
potential hepatotoxicity, normal liver function test results do not necessarily indicate adherence to the medication regimen. Adherence is best assessed by the client's response to treatment, such as improvement in symptoms and resolution of the infection.
B. The client has a positive purified protein derivative test: A positive purified protein derivative (PPD) test indicates exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis but does not provide information about the client's adherence to the medication regimen for tuberculosis treatment. Adherence to treatment is determined by factors such as medication compliance and therapeutic response.
C. The client tests negative for HIV: The client's HIV status is not directly related to adherence to the tuberculosis medication regimen. While co-infection with HIV can impact the management of tuberculosis, testing negative for HIV does not confirm adherence to tuberculosis treatment.
D. The client has a negative sputum culture: A negative sputum culture indicates the absence of viable Mycobacterium tuberculosis organisms in the sputum sample and suggests effective
treatment and adherence to the medication regimen. Monitoring sputum culture conversion is a key indicator of treatment success in tuberculosis therapy.
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