A nurse is assessing a client who is post-op tonsillectomy. Which of the following assessments would be a priority for the RN to intervene?
Child has a fever, decreased urine output and is refusing oral liquids.
Parent states her child is in a lot of pain.
Nurse notes enlarged lymph nodes in cervical area (neck)
Nurse notes that child is swallowing frequently.
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale:
A. Fever, decreased urine output, and refusal of oral liquids are concerning findings that may indicate dehydration or infection. Fever is a common post-operative response and usually peaks 1–3 days after surgery. Decreased urine output suggests the child may not be adequately hydrated, and refusal to take oral fluids can exacerbate this. While these findings warrant prompt attention and intervention, they are not immediately life-threatening in the immediate post-tonsillectomy period. Nursing interventions may include encouraging oral fluids, monitoring hydration status, and notifying the provider if the child’s output continues to decrease or fever persists.
B. Postoperative pain is expected after a tonsillectomy and can usually be managed with prescribed analgesics. While pain management is important to maintain comfort and prevent complications such as poor oral intake, pain alone is not considered a priority over signs of acute complications like hemorrhage. The nurse should assess pain, administer analgesics as prescribed, and monitor the child’s response, but this is not immediately life-threatening.
C. Enlarged cervical lymph nodes may indicate infection or inflammation, which is a common finding after tonsillectomy due to local tissue trauma or preexisting infection. While this may require monitoring and follow-up, it does not pose an immediate risk to airway or circulation, and therefore is not the highest priority in the acute postoperative period.
D. Frequent swallowing is a key early indicator of postoperative hemorrhage, which is the most serious and potentially life-threatening complication after a tonsillectomy. Children may swallow blood without visible vomiting, making frequent swallowing a subtle but critical sign. Hemorrhage can lead to rapid blood loss, airway compromise, hypovolemic shock, and even death if not addressed immediately. The nurse’s priority is to assess the throat, monitor vital signs for signs of shock (e.g., tachycardia, pallor, hypotension), notify the surgeon immediately, and prepare for possible interventions such as suctioning, IV fluid resuscitation, or emergency surgery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Pain in both quadrants of the upper abdomen is incorrect because upper abdominal discomfort is usually related to disorders of the stomach, liver, gallbladder, or pancreas. Conditions such as gastritis, peptic ulcer disease, or cholecystitis can cause upper abdominal pain, but appendicitis typically does not present with pain in the upper quadrants, especially not bilaterally, as the appendix is located in the lower abdomen.
B. Pain in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen is incorrect because left lower quadrant pain is more characteristic of conditions such as constipation, gastroenteritis, urinary tract infection, or diverticulitis. Appendicitis rarely causes pain in the left lower quadrant unless the appendix is in an atypical location, which is uncommon.
C. Pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen is incorrect because this is associated with hepatobiliary disorders such as cholecystitis, hepatitis, or pneumonia affecting the lower right lung. While referred pain can occasionally be misleading, classic appendicitis pain does not typically localize to the right upper quadrant.
D. Pain in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen is correct because the classic presentation of appendicitis in children includes initial periumbilical pain that is vague and poorly localized, which gradually migrates to the right lower quadrant at McBurney’s point, approximately one-third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus. Pain becomes sharp, constant, and more localized as the parietal peritoneum becomes inflamed. Associated symptoms often include nausea, vomiting, anorexia, low-grade fever, and sometimes rebound tenderness or guarding on palpation. Recognizing right lower quadrant pain as a hallmark sign allows the nurse to anticipate the need for prompt diagnostic evaluation, such as ultrasound, CT scan, or laboratory studies showing elevated WBC count, and to notify the provider for possible surgical intervention. Early recognition is critical to prevent perforation and peritonitis, which can significantly increase morbidity in children.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Moderate lochia rubra is incorrect because moderate vaginal bleeding is expected in the first 24 hours after birth. Lochia rubra is the normal postpartum discharge composed of blood and decidual tissue, and moderate flow does not indicate hemorrhage or increased risk.
B. First degree perineal laceration is incorrect because it involves only the vaginal mucosa or perineal skin. First degree lacerations typically heal quickly and are associated with minimal blood loss, so they do not significantly increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
C. Bloggy uterus is correct because a soft, poorly contracted uterus (uterine atony) is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. A firm, contracted uterus compresses the uterine blood vessels to prevent excessive bleeding. When the uterus is boggy, blood vessels remain open, increasing the risk for significant postpartum bleeding, which is a medical emergency if not promptly managed.
D. Singleton pregnancy is incorrect because multiple gestation, not a singleton pregnancy, increases the risk of uterine overdistension and subsequent hemorrhage. A single fetus generally does not place the uterus at the same level of risk for atony as twins or higher-order multiples.
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