A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of TPN
2+ deep tendons reflexes
Casual blood glucose 100 mg/dl
Potassium 4.8 mEq/L
2+ peripheral pitting Edema
The Correct Answer is D
TPN is a form of nutrition given intravenously to provide essential nutrients when a client is unable to consume an adequate oral diet. One of the potential adverse effects of TPN is fluid overload, which can manifest as peripheral edema. The presence of 2+ peripheral pitting edema indicates the accumulation of excess fluid in the tissues. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's fluid balance closely and assess for signs of fluid overload, such as edema, to prevent complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Hemoglobin level: The hemoglobin level measures the amount of hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells, in the blood. Warfarin is not directly responsible for increasing or decreasing the hemoglobin level. While warfarin can lead to bleeding complications in some cases, it does not specifically target the hemoglobin level, so it is not a direct indicator of the medication's effectiveness.
B. Platelet count: The platelet count measures the number of platelets in the blood, which are essential for blood clotting. Warfarin does not directly affect platelet production or count. It works by inhibiting the production of certain clotting factors, not by affecting platelets. Monitoring the platelet count is important, but it is not an indicator of warfarin's effectiveness in preventing excessive clotting.
C. Prothrombin time (PT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) are coagulation tests used to assess different types of anticoagulant medications, such as heparin. Warfarin's effect is measured using the International Normalized Ratio (INR). PT and aPTT are not specific to warfarin therapy and are not used to monitor its effectiveness. The INR is the appropriate laboratory test for assessing the efficacy of warfarin therapy.
D. International Normalized Ratio (INR): This is the correct answer. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. The INR measures the time it takes for the blood to clot and reflects the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. A therapeutic INR within the target range (e.g., INR = 2.0 to 3.0 for most indications) indicates that warfarin has been effective in preventing excessive clotting and reducing the risk of complications associated with blood clots.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
When assessing a client receiving ciprofloxacin, the nurse should prioritize reporting tendon pain when walking to the provider. Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that can rarely cause tendonitis or tendon rupture, particularly in the Achilles tendon. Tendon pain, especially when associated with difficulty walking, can be indicative of a serious adverse effect and requires immediate attention and evaluation by the provider.
Nausea and vomiting (A) are common side effects of ciprofloxacin but are typically not considered urgent or life-threatening. They can often be managed with supportive care measures and may not require immediate intervention.
Daytime drowsiness (B) is not typically associated with ciprofloxacin and may be unrelated to the medication. It should be assessed and reported if it persists or is severe, but it is not a priority finding specifically related to ciprofloxacin administration.
Photosensitivity (D) is a known side effect of ciprofloxacin, but it is not typically considered a priority finding unless it is severe or causing significant discomfort. Adequate sun protection measures can help manage photosensitivity.
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