A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of TPN
2+ deep tendons reflexes
Casual blood glucose 100 mg/dl
Potassium 4.8 mEq/L
2+ peripheral pitting Edema
The Correct Answer is D
TPN is a form of nutrition given intravenously to provide essential nutrients when a client is unable to consume an adequate oral diet. One of the potential adverse effects of TPN is fluid overload, which can manifest as peripheral edema. The presence of 2+ peripheral pitting edema indicates the accumulation of excess fluid in the tissues. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's fluid balance closely and assess for signs of fluid overload, such as edema, to prevent complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly used to treat fluid volume excess by promoting diuresis. One of the expected outcomes of furosemide administration is an increased urinary output as excess fluid is eliminated from the body. Therefore, if the medication has been effective, the nurse would expect to see an increased urinary output as a result of the diuretic effect.
Increased respiratory rate (B) is not an expected outcome of furosemide administration. It may occur in some cases due to increased fluid elimination and potential electrolyte imbalances, but it is not the primary indicator of the medication's effectiveness.
Decreased blood pressure (C) is a possible outcome of furosemide administration due to the diuretic effect and subsequent reduction in fluid volume. However, it is not the most specific indicator of the medication's effectiveness in this case.
Increased pulse (D) is not a typical finding associated with the effectiveness of furosemide. In fact, furosemide can sometimes cause a decrease in heart rate due to its impact on fluid and electrolyte balance.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Hemoglobin level: The hemoglobin level measures the amount of hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells, in the blood. Warfarin is not directly responsible for increasing or decreasing the hemoglobin level. While warfarin can lead to bleeding complications in some cases, it does not specifically target the hemoglobin level, so it is not a direct indicator of the medication's effectiveness.
B. Platelet count: The platelet count measures the number of platelets in the blood, which are essential for blood clotting. Warfarin does not directly affect platelet production or count. It works by inhibiting the production of certain clotting factors, not by affecting platelets. Monitoring the platelet count is important, but it is not an indicator of warfarin's effectiveness in preventing excessive clotting.
C. Prothrombin time (PT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) are coagulation tests used to assess different types of anticoagulant medications, such as heparin. Warfarin's effect is measured using the International Normalized Ratio (INR). PT and aPTT are not specific to warfarin therapy and are not used to monitor its effectiveness. The INR is the appropriate laboratory test for assessing the efficacy of warfarin therapy.
D. International Normalized Ratio (INR): This is the correct answer. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. The INR measures the time it takes for the blood to clot and reflects the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. A therapeutic INR within the target range (e.g., INR = 2.0 to 3.0 for most indications) indicates that warfarin has been effective in preventing excessive clotting and reducing the risk of complications associated with blood clots.
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