A nurse is caring for a client who has congestive heart failure and is taking digoxin daily. The client refused breakfast and is complaining of nausea and weakness. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Request a dietitian consult.
Suggest that the client rests before eating the meal.
Request an order for an antiemetic.
Check the client's vital signs.
The Correct Answer is D
The nurse should check the client's vital signs first because nausea and weakness are signs of digoxin toxicity, which can also cause bradycardia, hypotension, and arrhythmias. The nurse should also assess the client's serum digoxin level, potassium level, and electrocardiogram.
Request a dietitian consult is wrong because it is not the priority action and it does not address the possible cause of the client's symptoms. A dietitian consult may be helpful to provide nutritional education and guidance, but only after ruling out or treating digoxin toxicity.
Suggest that the client rests before eating the meal is wrong because it is not the priority action and it may delay the diagnosis and treatment of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should not assume that the client's symptoms are due to fatigue or lack of appetite, but rather investigate for any underlying problems.
Request an order for an antiemetic is wrong because it is not the priority action and it may mask the symptoms of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should not administer any medications that could interact with digoxin or worsen its effects, but rather notify the provider and follow the protocol for digoxin toxicity management.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["24"]
Explanation
To calculate the infusion rate, use the formula:
(rate in mL/hr) = (desired dose in units/hr) / (available dose in units/mL)
In this case, the desired dose is 1,200 units/hr and the available dose is 25,000 units / 500 mL = 50 units/mL. Therefore,
(rate in mL/hr) = (1,200 units/hr) / (50 units/mL) = 24 mL/hr
Round the answer to the nearest tenth/whole number and use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero because it could be misread as a decimal point. Therefore, the nurse should set the IV pump to deliver 24 mL/hr.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The P wave is the first wave on the ECG strip and represents the electrical activity of the atria. It reflects the depolarization of the atrial myocardium, which is the process of changing the electrical charge of the cardiac cells from negative to positive, triggering a contraction. The P wave precedes the QRS complex, which represents ventricular depolarization, and the T wave, which represents ventricular repolarization.
The other options are not correct because:
a. Slow repolarization of ventricular Purkinje fibers. This statement is incorrect because it describes the U wave, which is a small and sometimes invisible wave that follows the T wave on the ECG strip. It reflects the repolarization of the ventricular Purkinje fibers, which are specialized cardiac cells that conduct electrical impulses to the ventricles. The U wave is more prominent in conditions that cause hypokalemia, such as diuretic use or vomiting.
c. Early ventricular repolarization. This statement is incorrect because it describes the ST segment, which is the flat line between the QRS complex and the T wave on the ECG strip. It reflects the early phase of ventricular repolarization, which is the process of restoring the electrical charge of the cardiac cells to negative after a contraction. The ST segment can be elevated or depressed in conditions that cause myocardial ischemia or injury, such as angina or myocardial infarction.
d. Ventricular depolarization. This statement is incorrect because it describes the QRS complex, which is the largest and most visible wave on the ECG strip. It reflects the depolarization of the ventricular myocardium, which triggers a ventricular contraction. The QRS complex follows the P wave and precedes the T wave on the ECG strip.
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