A nurse is caring for a client who has congestive heart failure and is taking digoxin daily. The client refused breakfast and is complaining of nausea and weakness. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Request a dietitian consult.
Suggest that the client rests before eating the meal.
Request an order for an antiemetic.
Check the client's vital signs.
The Correct Answer is D
The nurse should check the client's vital signs first because nausea and weakness are signs of digoxin toxicity, which can also cause bradycardia, hypotension, and arrhythmias. The nurse should also assess the client's serum digoxin level, potassium level, and electrocardiogram.
Request a dietitian consult is wrong because it is not the priority action and it does not address the possible cause of the client's symptoms. A dietitian consult may be helpful to provide nutritional education and guidance, but only after ruling out or treating digoxin toxicity.
Suggest that the client rests before eating the meal is wrong because it is not the priority action and it may delay the diagnosis and treatment of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should not assume that the client's symptoms are due to fatigue or lack of appetite, but rather investigate for any underlying problems.
Request an order for an antiemetic is wrong because it is not the priority action and it may mask the symptoms of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should not administer any medications that could interact with digoxin or worsen its effects, but rather notify the provider and follow the protocol for digoxin toxicity management.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Frothy sputum is a sign of left-sided heart failure, due to the pulmonary congestion and impaired gas exchange. The sputum may be pink-tinged or blood-streaked, indicating pulmonary edema.
a. Dependent edema is more likely to be seen in clients who have right-sided heart failure, due to the increased venous pressure and fluid retention. The edema is usually symmetrical and affects the lower extremities, abdomen, and sometimes the face.
c. Nocturnal polyuria is not a specific finding of left-sided heart failure, but it may occur in clients who have renal impairment, diabetes mellitus, or diuretic therapy.
d. Jugular distention is another sign of right-sided heart failure, due to the increased central venous pressure and backward flow of blood into the superior vena cava. It is visible as a bulging of the neck veins, especially when the client is in a semi-Fowler's position.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Administering an anticholinesterase medication is not the primary intervention during a myasthenic crisis. While these medications can improve muscle strength in myasthenia gravis, they are not sufficient in the event of a crisis.
Choice B reason:
Pursed lip breathing is a technique used to manage dyspnea but is not adequate for the acute management of a myasthenic crisis, which can involve respiratory muscle paralysis.
Choice C reason:
Vasoconstrictors are not used in the treatment of myasthenic crisis. This condition is not related to vascular issues but to neuromuscular transmission failure leading to respiratory failure.
Choice D reason:
Mechanical ventilation is the correct intervention as it provides the necessary respiratory support when the patient's respiratory muscles are too weak to maintain adequate ventilation.
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