A nurse is assessing a client with suspected appendicitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Rebound tenderness at McBurney’s point
Hyperactive bowel sounds
Increased urinary output
Soft, non-tender abdomen
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Rebound tenderness at McBurney’s point, located in the right lower quadrant, is a classic sign of appendicitis. It occurs due to peritoneal irritation from an inflamed appendix, causing pain when pressure is released. This reflects localized inflammation and is a key diagnostic finding, often accompanied by guarding and fever.
Choice B reason: Hyperactive bowel sounds are not typical in appendicitis. Early in the condition, bowel sounds may be normal, but as inflammation progresses, paralytic ileus develops, leading to hypoactive or absent bowel sounds. Hyperactive sounds suggest other conditions, like gastroenteritis or obstruction, not the peritoneal irritation characteristic of appendicitis.
Choice C reason: Increased urinary output is not associated with appendicitis. Inflammation may cause systemic effects, but the kidneys typically reduce urine output (oliguria) in response to stress or hypovolemia from fluid shifts. Appendicitis does not directly affect renal function to increase urine production, making this an unlikely finding.
Choice D reason: A soft, non-tender abdomen is not expected in appendicitis. The condition causes localized tenderness, guarding, and rigidity in the right lower quadrant due to inflammation. A soft abdomen suggests no significant peritoneal irritation, which contradicts the pathophysiology of appendicitis, where pain and muscle guarding are prominent features.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Active leg exercises promote venous return by activating the calf muscle pump, preventing blood stasis in the lower extremities. Stasis is a key component of Virchow’s triad, increasing the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can lead to pulmonary embolism. Regular movement enhances circulation, reducing clot formation in postoperative patients.
Choice B reason: Maintaining the head of the bed at 90 degrees does not directly reduce pulmonary embolism risk. While it may improve respiratory function, it does not address venous stasis or clot formation in the lower extremities, the primary source of pulmonary emboli. This position may also increase discomfort or orthostatic hypotension in some patients.
Choice C reason: Early ambulation enhances venous blood flow by engaging leg muscles, reducing stasis, a major risk factor for deep vein thrombosis and subsequent pulmonary embolism. Postoperative immobility increases clot formation risk, so mobilizing the client soon after surgery, when safe, significantly lowers the likelihood of thromboembolic events in the pulmonary vasculature.
Choice D reason: Aspirin and warfarin are anticoagulants that reduce clotting risk, but their use must be carefully considered due to bleeding risks in postoperative patients. They are not first-line interventions compared to mechanical methods like leg exercises or compression stockings. Their administration requires specific medical orders and monitoring, making them less immediate for prevention.
Choice E reason: Compression stockings apply graduated pressure to the legs, promoting venous return and preventing blood pooling, which reduces the risk of deep vein thrombosis formation. By counteracting stasis, they help prevent clots that could dislodge and cause a pulmonary embolism, making them an effective, non-invasive intervention for postoperative patients.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Stage 2 pressure injuries involve partial thickness skin loss, affecting the epidermis and possibly the dermis. The wound bed appears red or pink due to exposed, viable tissue, often with serous exudate. This stage does not involve deeper structures like fat or bone, and the tissue remains intact enough for potential healing with proper care.
Choice B reason: Full thickness skin loss with visible bone is characteristic of a stage 4 pressure injury, not stage 2. Stage 4 involves damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures, with significant tissue necrosis. Stage 2 is limited to superficial layers, primarily the epidermis and dermis, without exposure of deeper tissues like bone.
Choice C reason: Full thickness skin loss with visible adipose tissue indicates a stage 3 pressure injury. Stage 3 involves damage extending into subcutaneous fat but not to muscle or bone. Stage 2 pressure injuries are confined to partial thickness loss, affecting only the epidermis and dermis, without exposing adipose tissue.
Choice D reason: Intact skin with localized non-blanchable redness describes a stage 1 pressure injury. This stage shows no skin breakdown, only persistent erythema due to pressure-induced ischemia. Stage 2 progresses to partial thickness skin loss, with visible damage to the epidermis and possibly dermis, distinguishing it from stage 1’s intact skin.
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