A nurse is assessing a full-term newborn upon admission to the nursery. Which of the following clinical findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Rust-stained urine.
Single palmar creases.
Subconjunctival hemorrhage.
Transient circumoral cyanosis.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. Single palmar creases.
Choice A rationale:
Rust-stained urine is typically due to urate crystals and is common in newborns. It usually resolves on its own and is not a cause for concern.
Choice B rationale:
Single palmar creases can be associated with certain genetic conditions, such as Down syndrome. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation.
Choice C rationale:
Subconjunctival hemorrhage is a common finding in newborns due to the pressure changes during delivery. It usually resolves without intervention and is not typically a cause for concern.
Choice D rationale:
Transient circumoral cyanosis is often seen in newborns and can occur when the baby is crying or feeding. It usually resolves on its own and is not typically a cause for concern.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should assess this client first as they are at 34 weeks of gestation and experiencing epigastric pain and headache. These symptoms could be indicative of preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage. Preeclampsia requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale:
Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms during the first trimester of pregnancy, and at 12 weeks of gestation, it is less likely to be a critical issue compared to potential preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale:
Painful urination may indicate a urinary tract infection, which can be important to assess and treat, but it is not as urgent as potential signs of preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation.
Choice D rationale:
Cramping and spotting can be normal signs of impending labor, especially at 39 weeks of gestation. While it's important to assess this client, it is not the priority over potential preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation with symptoms of epigastric pain and headache.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
This statement is incorrect. An indirect Coombs' test is not used to determine the risk of hypoglycemia in a baby after birth. It is used to detect antibodies against red blood cells, particularly in the context of blood incompatibility between a pregnant woman and her fetus.
Choice B rationale:
This statement is incorrect. An indirect Coombs' test is not related to determining the amount of amniotic fluid around the fetus. It is used primarily to assess for Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus.
Choice C rationale:
This statement is incorrect. The test described here is a Doppler ultrasound, not an indirect Coombs' test. Doppler ultrasound is used to study blood flow in the fetus and placenta using ultrasound waves.
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