A nurse is assessing an older client who has respiratory insufficiency.
Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as the first sign of hypoxia?
Restlessness.
Extreme combativeness.
Diaphoresis.
Oliguria.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Early hypoxia, which is a reduced oxygen supply to the tissues, primarily affects the highly sensitive brain cells first, leading to changes in mental status. Restlessness, often accompanied by anxiety or confusion, is a key early indicator resulting from cerebral hypoxia and is a critical finding, especially in older adults, requiring prompt nursing intervention to prevent further deterioration.
Choice B rationale
Extreme combativeness represents a late and severe sign of cerebral hypoxia or hypercapnia, occurring after the initial compensatory mechanisms have failed and the central nervous system has become significantly depressed or irritated by prolonged oxygen deprivation. This level of agitation is typically preceded by earlier, less severe signs like restlessness and confusion, indicating an advanced stage of respiratory distress.
Choice C rationale
Diaphoresis, or excessive sweating, is a nonspecific symptom often associated with increased sympathetic nervous system activation due to stress, pain, or fever, and may occur during severe respiratory distress but is not the most reliable or earliest specific indicator of the onset of hypoxia. Although it can accompany the body's response to severe oxygen deprivation, changes in mentation like restlessness are generally observed first.
Choice D rationale
Oliguria, defined as urine output less than 400 mL in 24 hours, is a clinical manifestation of decreased renal perfusion, which can be caused by hypotension or severe hypovolemia. While severe, prolonged hypoxia can eventually lead to shock and reduced cardiac output, causing decreased blood flow to the kidneys and subsequent oliguria, it is a very late systemic sign, not the first indication of initial tissue hypoxia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Scrambled egg whites and whole grain bread are generally acceptable food choices for a client with heart failure as egg whites are a low-sodium and high-quality protein source, and whole grain bread provides essential fiber and complex carbohydrates. These foods align with the low-sodium dietary restrictions necessary for managing fluid retention and reducing cardiac workload in heart failure.
Choice B rationale
Green leafy vegetables such as kale and spinach are excellent food choices for heart failure clients because they are naturally low in sodium and high in essential nutrients like potassium and magnesium, which support cardiac function. These nutrients help to counterbalance the effects of sodium, promote healthy blood pressure, and are generally encouraged in a heart-healthy diet.
Choice C rationale
A fruit platter with blackberries, oranges, and grapes is a highly appropriate food selection, as fruits are naturally low in sodium and rich in antioxidants, vitamins, and dietary fiber. The high potassium content in fruits like oranges can also help regulate fluid balance and blood pressure, aligning perfectly with the nutritional goals for a client managing congestive heart failure.
Choice D rationale
A grilled cheese sandwich with a side of pickles should be strictly avoided by a client with congestive heart failure due to its extremely high sodium content, particularly from the processed cheese, bread, and pickles. Excessive sodium intake causes fluid retention, which increases circulating blood volume and significantly raises the workload on the already compromised heart, leading to exacerbation of heart failure symptoms.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Family history of heart disease is considered a non-modifiable risk factor because it involves genetic predisposition and shared familial traits that cannot be altered by lifestyle changes. This includes congenital anomalies or inherited conditions like familial hypercholesterolemia, which significantly influence an individual's lifetime cardiovascular risk profile, making it a fixed variable.
Choice B rationale
Exercise is a key modifiable risk factor for heart disease because the lack of physical activity, or a sedentary lifestyle, directly contributes to poor cardiovascular health. Regular aerobic exercise improves endothelial function, lowers blood pressure, increases HDL cholesterol, and helps manage weight, thereby significantly reducing the overall atherosclerotic burden and cardiovascular risk.
Choice C rationale
Smoking is a major modifiable risk factor for heart disease because it directly damages the endothelial lining of the arteries, leading to atherosclerosis, vasoconstriction, and increased blood coagulability. Quitting tobacco use, which is a behavioral change, rapidly decreases the risk for myocardial infarction and stroke due to improved vascular health and oxygen-carrying capacity.
Choice D rationale
Diet is a highly modifiable risk factor, as dietary choices directly impact cholesterol levels, blood pressure, and body weight, all central to heart disease development. A diet high in saturated fats and sodium, and low in fruits and vegetables, promotes hypertension and dyslipidemia, whereas adopting a heart-healthy diet can substantially mitigate these risks.
Choice E rationale
Age is a non-modifiable risk factor because the risk of developing heart disease, especially atherosclerosis, naturally increases as an individual ages due to accumulated cellular damage, decreased vascular elasticity, and decades of exposure to other risk factors. This factor cannot be changed, although managing modifiable risks can improve heart health at any age.
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