A nurse is assessing the growth and development of a 16-year-old adolescent. Which of the following behaviors or physical changes would the nurse expect to observe in a typical adolescent at this stage? (Select all that apply)
Full adult height and the cessation of body changes
A decrease in growth rate and an increase in body fat distribution
Heightened interest in forming intimate relationships outside the family
Increased independence and desire for privacy, with a focus on peer relationships
Development of secondary sexual characteristics such as facial hair in males and breast development in females
Correct Answer : B,C,D,E
A. Full adult height and the cessation of body changes is incorrect because while many adolescents are nearing adult height by age 16, some continue to grow, particularly males. Body changes may still be ongoing, so complete cessation of growth is not typical.
B. A decrease in growth rate and an increase in body fat distribution is correct because by mid-adolescence, the rapid growth of puberty slows, and changes in body composition occur. Females typically experience an increase in body fat, while males may see a decrease in fat with increased muscle mass.
C. Heightened interest in forming intimate relationships outside the family is correct because adolescents at this stage begin exploring romantic and sexual relationships and may form emotional attachments with peers or romantic partners.
D. Increased independence and desire for privacy, with a focus on peer relationships is correct because autonomy and identity formation are key developmental tasks of adolescence. Adolescents seek privacy, rely more on peers, and may challenge parental authority as part of normal psychosocial development.
E. Development of secondary sexual characteristics such as facial hair in males and breast development in females is correct because most adolescents have completed or are in the later stages of puberty by age 16, with secondary sexual characteristics well established.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Barking cough and inspiratory stridor, especially at night is incorrect because this is characteristic of croup, a respiratory condition, not tetralogy of Fallot. Tetralogy of Fallot primarily affects cardiac blood flow, not the upper airway.
B. Bradycardia and hypotension following minor activity or mild stress is incorrect because children with tetralogy of Fallot typically develop tachycardia in response to hypoxia or stress, rather than bradycardia. Hypotension is not a hallmark sign unless there is shock or severe complications.
C. Cyanosis that worsens during crying or feeding, often relieved by squatting is correct because children with tetralogy of Fallot have right-to-left shunting due to the combination of ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy. This shunting reduces pulmonary blood flow, leading to cyanosis, which often becomes more pronounced during periods of increased oxygen demand, such as crying or feeding. Squatting increases systemic vascular resistance, temporarily reducing the shunt and improving oxygenation, which is known as a “Tet spell” relief maneuver.
D. Peripheral edema and hepatomegaly during exertion or prolonged play is incorrect because these signs are more typical of heart failure rather than tetralogy of Fallot in a child without chronic severe heart failure. Tetralogy of Fallot presents primarily with cyanosis and hypoxic spells.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A primiparous patient who delivered a 7-pound 10-ounce baby 24 hours ago is at lower risk because primiparous patients generally have a lower risk of postpartum hemorrhage, and moderate birth weight babies rarely cause excessive uterine stretching. The 24-hour postpartum period also allows for initial uterine contraction.
B. A multiparous patient who delivered a 9-pound baby 4 hours ago is correct because multiparity and macrosomia (large baby) increase the risk of uterine atony, which is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. The patient is also in the early postpartum period (first 24 hours), which is when most hemorrhages occur, making this patient the highest risk.
C. A primiparous patient who delivered a late preterm baby 24 hours ago is lower risk because smaller birth weight and primiparity reduce the risk of excessive uterine stretching and atony.
D. A multiparous patient who delivered a 7-pound baby 6 hours ago is at some risk due to multiparity, but the smaller baby size reduces the likelihood of uterine atony compared with a 9-pound infant.
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