A nurse is assisting the provider with a lumbar puncture for a client who has manifestations of meningitis.
Into which of the following positions should the nurse assist the client?
Arms raised above her head with her legs elevated on pillows.
Trendelenburg with her body in Sims' position.
Prone with her arms at her side and her legs extended.
Head flexed to the chest and her knees pulled up to the abdomen.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Placing the client's arms raised above her head with her legs elevated on pillows (choice A) is not the correct position for a lumbar puncture. This position does not facilitate proper alignment of the spine and may hinder the procedure.
Choice B rationale:
The Trendelenburg position with the body in Sims' position (choice B) is not the correct position for a lumbar puncture. This position is not commonly used for lumbar punctures and may not provide the necessary anatomical alignment for a successful procedure.
Choice C rationale:
Placing the client prone with her arms at her side and her legs extended (choice C) is not the appropriate position for a lumbar puncture. This position does not allow for proper access to the lumbar region and may impede the procedure.
Choice D rationale:
The correct position for a lumbar puncture is to have the client flex their head to the chest and pull their knees up to the abdomen (choice D) This position maximizes the space between the lumbar vertebrae, making it easier for the provider to access the subarachnoid space for cerebrospinal fluid collection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E","G"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Blood pressure is a crucial parameter to monitor in a pregnant woman. A significant increase in blood pressure could indicate a condition called preeclampsia, which is characterized by high blood pressure and damage to another organ system, often the liver and kidneys. Preeclampsia usually begins after 20 weeks of pregnancy in women whose blood pressure had been normal. Left untreated, preeclampsia can lead to serious — even fatal — complications for both mother and baby.
Choice B rationale:
While the respiratory rate is an important vital sign, it does not directly indicate a prenatal complication in this context. Normal respiratory rates for an adult range from 12 to 20 breaths per minute. Changes could indicate a respiratory problem but not specifically a prenatal complication.
Choice C rationale:
Gravida/parity is a standard way to denote a woman's reproductive history but does not indicate a prenatal complication. Gravida refers to the number of times a woman has been pregnant, regardless of the outcome, while parity refers to the number of pregnancies carried past 20 weeks, regardless of whether they were born alive or stillborn.
Choice D rationale:
Decreased fetal activity can be a sign of distress in the fetus. It could indicate complications such as poor oxygenation or other conditions that could affect the health of the baby. It's important for pregnant women to monitor their baby's movements daily after 28 weeks.
Choice E rationale:
A severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen in a pregnant woman could be a sign of preeclampsia, especially when accompanied by other symptoms such as high blood pressure and changes in vision. This should be evaluated immediately.
Choice F rationale:
Urine ketones are usually checked in pregnant women who have symptoms of a condition called ketoacidosis, which is often seen in women with gestational diabetes. However, this condition is not indicated in this scenario.
Choice G rationale:
Protein in the urine is another potential sign of preeclampsia. It's caused by kidney problems resulting from the high blood pressure. In normal conditions, protein should not be present in urine or should be very low.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Thick, white vaginal discharge is a common symptom of candidiasis, which is a fungal infection caused by Candida species. It is a characteristic finding in this condition.
Choice B rationale:
A hard, painless chancre is associated with syphilis, not candidiasis. This finding is not related to candidiasis.
Choice C rationale:
A feeling of pelvic heaviness is not a typical symptom of candidiasis. It may be associated with other gynecological conditions but is not specific to candidiasis.
Choice D rationale:
Frothy, malodorous discharge is characteristic of trichomoniasis, another type of vaginal infection caused by Trichomonas vaginalis. It is not a typical finding in candidiasis.
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