A nurse is assisting with planning care for a 2-month-old infant during a well-child visit. The nurse should plan to administer which of the following Immunizations?
Rotavirus (RV)
Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR)
Varicella (VAR)
Influenza (IV)
The Correct Answer is A
A. Rotavirus (RV): The first dose of the rotavirus vaccine is recommended at 2 months of age as part of the routine immunization schedule. Rotavirus vaccination protects infants from severe gastroenteritis caused by rotavirus, which can lead to dehydration and hospitalization. Administration at this age supports early immunity before peak exposure to the virus.
B. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR): The MMR vaccine is typically administered starting at 12 months of age, with a second dose at 4–6 years. Giving it at 2 months is not appropriate because maternal antibodies can interfere with vaccine efficacy, and the infant’s immune system is not sufficiently mature to mount an adequate response.
C. Varicella (VAR): Varicella vaccination is also recommended at 12 months of age, with a second dose at 4–6 years. Administering it at 2 months would be ineffective due to interference from maternal antibodies and the immature immune system.
D. Influenza (IV): Routine influenza vaccination is recommended starting at 6 months of age. Infants younger than 6 months are !not eligible for the vaccine, so it is not appropriate to administer during a 2-month well-child visit.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Sinus tachycardia rate 104/min: Mild sinus tachycardia may occur in response to pain, anxiety, or hypovolemia and is usually not immediately life-threatening. While it should be monitored, it does not require urgent reporting unless it worsens or is accompanied by other concerning signs.
B. Two premature ventricular contractions per minute: Occasional PVCs can be benign, especially in a post-MI patient, and may not require immediate intervention. Frequent or paired PVCs, or those occurring in runs, are more concerning for ventricular arrhythmias.
C. First degree heart block: This is characterized by a prolonged PR interval but generally does not compromise cardiac output. It is often stable and can be monitored rather than reported as an urgent finding.
D. A new onset of atrial fibrillation: New-onset atrial fibrillation following a myocardial infarction increases the risk of decreased cardiac output, thromboembolism, and hemodynamic instability. This arrhythmia requires immediate notification of the provider for assessment and initiation of appropriate interventions such as rate or rhythm control and anticoagulation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Report the location of the fire: Notifying appropriate personnel or the fire alarm system is important for mobilizing help and initiating emergency response. However, it is not the first action because immediate threats to client safety must be addressed before communication.
B. Protect clients from immediate injury: The priority in any fire situation is the safety of clients and staff. Removing clients from immediate danger or shielding them from harm takes precedence over reporting, containing, or extinguishing the fire. This aligns with the first step of the RACE protocol (Rescue) in fire safety.
C. Contain the fire to one area: Containing the fire by closing doors and windows is critical to prevent spread, but it follows after ensuring that clients and staff are safe from immediate harm. Containment cannot protect individuals already in danger.
D. Extinguish the fire if possible: Extinguishing a fire is part of the RACE protocol, but attempting to put out a fire is secondary to rescuing individuals at risk. Only small, controllable fires should be attempted after ensuring safety of clients and staff.
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