A nurse in a clinic is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for a combination contraceptive transdermal patch. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
Start the first patch on the seventh day of the menstrual cycle.
The contraceptive effect will continue for 6 months following discontinuation of the medication
Apply the patch to the lower abdomen
Expect to have a headache during the first month
None
None
The Correct Answer is C
Correct answer: C
A) Start the first patch on the seventh day of the menstrual cycle: The patch is typically applied on the first day of the menstrual cycle or the first Sunday after the menstrual period begins, not on the seventh day. This helps ensure effective contraception from the start of use.
B) The contraceptive effect will continue for 6 months following discontinuation of the medication: The contraceptive effect of the patch does not last for 6 months after discontinuation. Once the patch is removed and not replaced, hormone levels drop, and fertility can return relatively quickly, typically within a few days to weeks.
C) Apply the patch to the lower abdomen: The patch should be applied to clean, dry, and intact skin on areas such as the lower abdomen, upper outer arm, buttock, or upper torso (excluding the breasts). This location allows for consistent hormone absorption.
D) Expect to have a headache during the first month: While some individuals may experience headaches as a side effect of hormonal contraceptives, this is not an expected or guaranteed outcome. Any persistent or severe headache should be reported to the healthcare provider, as it could indicate other concerns.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Answer: (C) The client is not grimacing
Rationale:
A) The client's blood pressure has been reduced:
While morphine can lower blood pressure due to its vasodilatory effects, a reduction in blood pressure is not necessarily a primary indicator of a therapeutic response to pain relief. It is more important to assess pain relief directly through the client's subjective experience and behavior rather than focusing on vital signs alone.
B) The client exhibits diaphoresis:
Diaphoresis, or sweating, can occur as a side effect of morphine administration but does not indicate that the medication is effectively relieving pain. In fact, diaphoresis might signal an adverse reaction or discomfort rather than a therapeutic effect.
C) The client is not grimacing:
The absence of grimacing suggests that the client's pain has decreased, which is a direct indicator of a therapeutic response to morphine. Observing a reduction in pain-related behaviors, such as grimacing, is a key assessment for determining the effectiveness of pain management in postoperative clients.
D) The client has an elevated heart rate:
An elevated heart rate may be a sign of unresolved pain or a side effect of morphine but is not a clear indicator of pain relief. Effective pain management with morphine typically results in a decrease in sympathetic nervous system responses, such as a high heart rate, rather than an increase.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
d. Increased joint stiffness due to loss of elasticity in joint cartilage.
Explanation:
The correct answer is d. Increased joint stiffness due to loss of elasticity in joint cartilage.
When teaching an older adult client about age-related changes, it is important for the nurse to provide accurate and relevant information. Joint stiffness is a commonly experienced age-related change that occurs due to the natural loss of elasticity in joint cartilage. As people age, their joints may become stiffer and less flexible, making movements and activities more challenging.
Option a is not the correct answer. Increased nail growth due to the buildup of calcium deposits is not an expected age-related change. Nail growth is primarily determined by factors such as genetics, overall health, and nutritional status, rather than calcium deposits.
Option b is not the correct answer. Increased perspiration due to overproduction by the sweat glands is not an expected age-related change. In fact, older adults may experience a decrease in the production of sweat, which can make them more susceptible to heat-related illnesses and dehydration.
Option c is not the correct answer. Increased cardiac output due to weakened heart walls is not an expected age-related change. With aging, the heart muscles may become stiffer and less efficient, leading to a decrease in cardiac output rather than an increase.
By focusing on the expected age-related change of increased joint stiffness due to loss of elasticity in joint cartilage, the nurse can provide accurate information and help the older adult client understand and manage this common aspect of the aging process.

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