A nurse is assisting with the care of a female client who is at 28 weeks of gestation in the maternity unit.
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.
The Correct Answer is []
An ectopic pregnancy is most likely due to the combination of symptoms: dizziness, pale skin, cool extremities, low blood pressure (86/48 mm Hg), and high heart rate (120/min). The soft and non-tender abdomen with no palpable contractions also suggests an ectopic pregnancy rather than other conditions. The low hematocrit (25%) and hemoglobin (9 g/dL) indicate significant blood loss, a hallmark of ectopic pregnancy.
Administer methotrexate is important to stop the growth of the embryo in an ectopic pregnancy. Insert a large-bore peripheral IV catheter to manage blood loss and prepare for potential surgery.
Monitoring beta human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels is crucial to confirm the diagnosis and monitor treatment response. Platelet count should be monitored due to the risk of bleeding associated with an ectopic pregnancy.
Placenta previa usually presents with painless vaginal bleeding, which is absent in this case. Chorioamnionitis is typically associated with infection signs like fever, uterine tenderness, and elevated white blood cell count, not primarily dizziness and low blood pressure. Cervical insufficiency usually presents with painless cervical dilation, leading to preterm birth, not the acute signs seen here. Vaginal bleeding is a symptom, not a diagnosis, and this client reports no vaginal bleeding.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
History of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is not directly related to the use of a cervical cap. The main concern with a cervical cap is infection, but MRSA history alone doesn't make it a contraindication for this form of contraception.
Choice B rationale
History of thrombophlebitis is more of a concern with hormonal contraceptives due to the risk of blood clots. A cervical cap does not involve hormones, so this condition is not a direct contraindication.
Choice C rationale
History of toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is a contraindication for the use of a cervical cap because the cap can increase the risk of developing TSS again. TSS is associated with prolonged use of barrier contraceptives, which can create an environment that fosters the growth of bacteria responsible for TSS.
Choice D rationale
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is not a direct contraindication for the use of a cervical cap. The concern with diabetes is often related to blood glucose control and potential infections, but it doesn't specifically contraindicate the use of cervical caps.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Wearing an underwire bra is not recommended for clients with inverted nipples as it can cause discomfort and restrict milk flow. Proper support without constriction is essential.
Choice B rationale
Placing breast shells in the client's bra helps to draw out inverted nipples by applying gentle pressure, making breastfeeding easier. They also protect the nipples from friction and irritation.
Choice C rationale
Providing plastic-lined breast pads may prevent leakage, but they do not address the issue of inverted nipples. Proper nipple preparation is essential for effective breastfeeding.
Choice D rationale
Applying breast cream regularly might keep the skin hydrated, but it does not help to correct the inversion of the nipples. Mechanical aids like breast shells are more effective.
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