A nurse is assisting with the care of a female client who is at 28 weeks of gestation in the maternity unit.
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.
The Correct Answer is []
An ectopic pregnancy is most likely due to the combination of symptoms: dizziness, pale skin, cool extremities, low blood pressure (86/48 mm Hg), and high heart rate (120/min). The soft and non-tender abdomen with no palpable contractions also suggests an ectopic pregnancy rather than other conditions. The low hematocrit (25%) and hemoglobin (9 g/dL) indicate significant blood loss, a hallmark of ectopic pregnancy.
Administer methotrexate is important to stop the growth of the embryo in an ectopic pregnancy. Insert a large-bore peripheral IV catheter to manage blood loss and prepare for potential surgery.
Monitoring beta human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels is crucial to confirm the diagnosis and monitor treatment response. Platelet count should be monitored due to the risk of bleeding associated with an ectopic pregnancy.
Placenta previa usually presents with painless vaginal bleeding, which is absent in this case. Chorioamnionitis is typically associated with infection signs like fever, uterine tenderness, and elevated white blood cell count, not primarily dizziness and low blood pressure. Cervical insufficiency usually presents with painless cervical dilation, leading to preterm birth, not the acute signs seen here. Vaginal bleeding is a symptom, not a diagnosis, and this client reports no vaginal bleeding.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A maternal age of 30 years is not a significant risk factor for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is more common in very young mothers or those over the age of 35.
Choice B rationale
A prepregnancy BMI of 19 is within the normal range and is not considered a risk factor for preeclampsia, which is more commonly associated with higher BMI or obesity.
Choice C rationale
Being in the third pregnancy (multiparity) is not a strong risk factor for preeclampsia. The risk factors are more closely related to the individual's health conditions and first pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
Chronic hypertension is a well-known risk factor for preeclampsia as it indicates pre-existing cardiovascular issues that can predispose one to developing preeclampsia during pregnancy.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
"You will be tested again for GBS at about 36 weeks of gestation.”. This is correct because retesting for GBS at 35-37 weeks of gestation is standard practice to identify colonization status before delivery, which helps in planning intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis.
Choice B rationale
"If you test positive for GBS, the provider will need to perform a cesarean birth.”. This is incorrect because GBS colonization is not an indication for cesarean delivery. The primary intervention is antibiotic administration during labor to prevent neonatal infection.
Choice C rationale
"You will take an antibiotic during the last 2 weeks of pregnancy to avoid transferring GBS to your baby.”. This is incorrect because antibiotics are given intrapartum (during labor) to prevent GBS transmission, not during the last weeks of pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
"This infection can cause your baby to experience hearing loss at birth.”. This is incorrect because GBS infection primarily causes sepsis, pneumonia, and meningitis in neonates, not hearing loss.
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