A nurse is caring for a 28-year-old pregnant female client at 38 weeks gestation who arrived to the OB triage unit with complaints of decreased fetal movement.
Complete the following sentence using the list of options. The nurse assesses the NonStress Test (NST) and documents the results as
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Based on the provided information, here is the completion of the sentence using the options:
The nurse assesses the Non-Stress Test (NST) and documents the results as Non-Reactive. The nurse contacts the provider and reports the NST results. The nurse anticipates an order for a Biophysical Profile.
A Non-Stress Test (NST) is used to monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) and its response to fetal movements. A reactive NST indicates that there are accelerations in the FHR in response to fetal movements, which is a sign of fetal well-being. A non-reactive NST means that there are no accelerations in the FHR with fetal movements, suggesting that the fetus might not be as active or responding as expected.
In this case, the NST was non-reactive because there were no accelerations in the fetal heart rate. This can be a cause for concern, as it may indicate potential issues with the fetus that need further evaluation. Therefore, the nurse would document the NST as non-reactive and contact the provider for further assessment.
A Biophysical Profile (BPP) is often ordered after a non-reactive NST. The BPP is a more comprehensive test that includes an ultrasound to assess fetal movement, muscle tone, breathing movements, and amniotic fluid volume, in addition to another NST. This helps to provide a clearer picture of the fetus's well-being.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"C"}
Explanation
Based on the provided information:
- Boggy fundus: This indicates uterine atony, which is a primary cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Addressing this immediately is crucial to prevent excessive bleeding.
- Heavy lochia with small clots: This further supports the concern for postpartum hemorrhage, necessitating prompt attention to assess and manage the bleeding.
Therefore, the nurse should first address the client's Fundus (Option A) followed by the client's Lochia (Option C).
So, the completed sentence would be:
"The nurse should first address the client's Fundus followed by the client's Lochia."
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Uterine atony is a common complication following polyhydramnios because the excessive amniotic fluid can lead to uterine overdistension, which in turn can cause poor uterine muscle tone and increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice B rationale
Thrombophlebitis is an inflammation of a vein with clot formation, but it is not directly associated with polyhydramnios.
Choice C rationale
Postpartum preeclampsia is high blood pressure and signs of organ damage after delivery, but there is no direct link between polyhydramnios and this condition.
Choice D rationale
Retained placental fragments can lead to postpartum hemorrhage but are not specifically associated with polyhydramnios.
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