A nurse is conducting screening assessments in an OBGYN clinic.Which of the following clients has risk factors for cervical cancer?
A client that reports irregular menses.
A client who is menopausal and taking hormone replacement therapy.
A client who reports multiple sexual partners.
A client who reports their mother has a history of breast cancer.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Irregular menses are not a direct risk factor for cervical cancer. While they can indicate hormonal imbalances, they are not strongly linked to cervical cancer risk.
Choice B rationale
Menopausal status and hormone replacement therapy (HRT) are more closely linked to breast cancer risks rather than cervical cancer. Cervical cancer is primarily associated with HPV infection.
Choice C rationale
Multiple sexual partners increase the risk of HPV infection, which is the primary cause of cervical cancer. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that significantly raises the likelihood of developing cervical cancer.
Choice D rationale
A family history of breast cancer is more relevant to breast cancer risk rather than cervical cancer. Cervical cancer risk is more closely linked to HPV infection and sexual behavior.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Postpartum blues typically resolve within the first two weeks postpartum and involve mild symptoms like mood swings and irritability. In contrast, postpartum depression can persist longer and requires treatment.
Choice B rationale
Symptoms of postpartum blues usually disappear without medical intervention, whereas postpartum depression often needs professional treatment to manage the more severe and persistent symptoms.
Choice C rationale
Postpartum depression can impair a mother's ability to care for herself and her baby safely, requiring intervention to prevent harm. Postpartum blues do not typically cause such severe functional impairment.
Choice D rationale
Postpartum depression may require antidepressants for treatment due to its severity. Postpartum blues generally do not necessitate such interventions and are managed through support and reassurance.
Choice E rationale
Postpartum depression can occur at any time within the first 12 months after delivery, while postpartum blues are usually confined to the initial two weeks postpartum.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Accidental lacerations are possible during a cesarean delivery, but they are typically managed quickly and are not the most critical issue immediately after birth.
Choice B rationale
Respiratory distress is the priority assessment for a newborn following a cesarean delivery because cesarean births can increase the risk of transient tachypnea or other respiratory complications due to the lack of labor-induced respiratory adaptation.
Choice C rationale
Hypothermia is a concern for all newborns, but respiratory distress takes precedence in the immediate post-delivery period, especially following cesarean delivery.
Choice D rationale
Acrocyanosis is a common and typically benign condition in newborns, not requiring immediate intervention compared to respiratory distress.
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