A nurse is caring for a 30-year-old female client who is 36 hours postpartum in the postpartum unit.
After reviewing the information in the client’s medical record, which of the following complications poses a greater risk for the client? Complete the following sentence by using the list of options:
The complication that poses the greatest risk for the client is
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
The complication that poses the greatest risk for the client is hemorrhage as evidenced by their amount of lochia.
Rationale for correct answers
Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is a major concern when excessive lochia and a boggy uterus are present. The nurse’s assessment reveals a boggy fundus, which firmed with massage but then softened again, indicating uterine atony, a leading cause of PPH. Additionally, the saturation of the perineal pad with lochia rubra and small clots suggests ongoing bleeding that requires close monitoring.
Rationale for incorrect Response 1 options
- Infection: No fever (≥38°C or 100.4°F) or foul-smelling lochia, which would indicate postpartum endometritis.
- Thrombophlebitis: No calf pain, swelling, or localized tenderness suggesting deep vein thrombosis.
- Mastitis: Breasts are soft, warm, and tender but without redness or localized pain, making mastitis unlikely.
Rationale for incorrect Response 2 options
- Breast tenderness: Expected due to milk production, not indicative of infection or complications.
- Calf pain: No evidence of thrombophlebitis or deep vein thrombosis.
- Fever: Temperature is normal at 37.2°C, ruling out systemic infection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","F","G"]
Explanation
Choice B rationale
Prostaglandin administration, either vaginally or orally, helps to ripen the cervix by increasing collagenase activity and water content, leading to cervical softening, thinning (effacement), and dilation, which are necessary for labor to begin.
Choice F rationale
Amniotomy, or artificial rupture of membranes (AROM), involves the deliberate rupture of the amniotic sac. This can stimulate labor by releasing prostaglandins, increasing uterine contractility, and allowing the presenting part of the fetus to descend further into the pelvis, putting pressure on the cervix.
Choice G rationale
Oxytocin is a synthetic hormone that mimics the action of endogenous oxytocin, stimulating uterine contractions. It is commonly administered intravenously to initiate or augment labor once cervical ripening has occurred or the cervix is favorable.
Choice A rationale
Epidural anesthesia is a method of pain relief during labor, not a method for inducing labor. It provides regional analgesia by blocking nerve impulses in the lower body.
Choice C rationale
Bed rest is generally not recommended for labor induction and can even be counterproductive. Ambulation and positional changes can help to encourage fetal descent and uterine activity.
Choice D rationale
Vitamin supplementation is important for overall maternal and fetal health during pregnancy but does not directly stimulate uterine contractions or cervical changes necessary for labor induction.
Choice E rationale
Fetal ultrasound is used to assess fetal well-being, presentation, and amniotic fluid volume but does not initiate the process of labor induction. .
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A reactive non-stress test indicates fetal well-being. The criteria for a reactive NST in a fetus greater than 32 weeks gestation include two or more fetal heart rate accelerations of at least 15 beats per minute above the baseline lasting for at least 15 seconds within a 20-minute period. The baseline fetal heart rate should be within the normal range of 110 to 160 beats per minute. This client's results meet these criteria.
Choice B rationale
A non-reactive non-stress test lacks the required number of fetal heart rate accelerations or the accelerations do not meet the amplitude or duration criteria within the specified time frame. This suggests the fetus may be experiencing some form of stress and requires further evaluation.
Choice C rationale
A negative non-stress test is not a standard term used to describe NST results. The test is categorized as either reactive (indicating fetal well-being) or non-reactive (suggesting potential fetal compromise).
Choice D rationale
A positive non-stress test is also not a standard term used for NST interpretation. A positive result in fetal monitoring typically refers to a contraction stress test where late decelerations are observed, indicating potential uteroplacental insufficiency.
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