A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a group of clients.
Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?
A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with severe abdominal pain, no bleeding, a blood pressure of 86/58 mm Hg and a pulse of 132/min.
A client who has an ectopic pregnancy, a blood pressure of 128/84 mm Hg a pulse of 88/min, and is crying.
A client who is at 9 weeks of gestation, took one dose of methotrexate and is now reporting moderate pain and dizziness, has a blood pressure of 116/80 mm Hg and a pulse of 86/min.
A client who is at 8 weeks of gestation with moderate vaginal bleeding, has minimal abdominal pain, a blood pressure of 118/72 mm Hg and a pulse of 96/min.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
The client at 6 weeks gestation exhibiting severe abdominal pain, hypotension (86/58 mm Hg), and tachycardia (132/min) suggests a potential ruptured ectopic pregnancy or other acute abdominal emergency requiring immediate intervention. Hypotension indicates inadequate tissue perfusion, and tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. Severe pain further indicates an acute process that necessitates prompt assessment and treatment to prevent further hemodynamic instability and potential life-threatening complications.
Choice B rationale
While a client with an ectopic pregnancy requires monitoring and care, the vital signs reported (blood pressure 128/84 mm Hg, pulse 88/min) are within normal limits. Normal blood pressure ranges are typically systolic 90-120 mm Hg and diastolic 60-80 mm Hg, and a normal pulse rate is generally 60-100 beats per minute. Although emotional distress from the diagnosis is important, the physiological parameters do not indicate an immediate critical threat compared to the client in Choice A.
Choice C rationale
A client at 9 weeks gestation who received methotrexate for an ectopic pregnancy and reports moderate pain and dizziness with stable vital signs (blood pressure 116/80 mm Hg, pulse 86/min) requires assessment for expected side effects of the medication or signs of treatment failure. Methotrexate can cause abdominal pain as it works to dissolve the pregnancy. While monitoring is necessary, the stable vital signs do not suggest an immediate life-threatening emergency compared to the client in Choice A.
Choice D rationale
A client at 8 weeks gestation with moderate vaginal bleeding, minimal abdominal pain, and stable vital signs (blood pressure 118/72 mm Hg, pulse 96/min) may be experiencing a threatened or inevitable miscarriage. While vaginal bleeding in early pregnancy warrants investigation and monitoring, the stable vital signs and minimal pain do not indicate an immediate critical emergency requiring prioritization over the client in Choice A who presents with signs of hemodynamic instability. .
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Explanation
The complication that poses the greatest risk for the client is hemorrhage as evidenced by their amount of lochia.
Rationale for correct answers
Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is a major concern when excessive lochia and a boggy uterus are present. The nurse’s assessment reveals a boggy fundus, which firmed with massage but then softened again, indicating uterine atony, a leading cause of PPH. Additionally, the saturation of the perineal pad with lochia rubra and small clots suggests ongoing bleeding that requires close monitoring.
Rationale for incorrect Response 1 options
- Infection: No fever (≥38°C or 100.4°F) or foul-smelling lochia, which would indicate postpartum endometritis.
- Thrombophlebitis: No calf pain, swelling, or localized tenderness suggesting deep vein thrombosis.
- Mastitis: Breasts are soft, warm, and tender but without redness or localized pain, making mastitis unlikely.
Rationale for incorrect Response 2 options
- Breast tenderness: Expected due to milk production, not indicative of infection or complications.
- Calf pain: No evidence of thrombophlebitis or deep vein thrombosis.
- Fever: Temperature is normal at 37.2°C, ruling out systemic infection.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While assessing cervical dilation is important for understanding the progress of labor, it is not the priority intervention in the case of umbilical cord prolapse. The immediate danger is fetal oxygen deprivation due to compression of the prolapsed cord. Delaying intervention to perform a cervical exam could worsen fetal hypoxia.
Choice B rationale
Increasing the rate of intravenous fluids might be indicated to support maternal blood pressure and placental perfusion, but it does not directly address the immediate problem of cord compression. The priority is to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord to restore fetal oxygen supply.
Choice C rationale
Administering oxygen to the mother is a helpful supportive measure to increase the oxygen available to the fetus. However, it does not directly relieve the compression on the umbilical cord, which is the immediate life-threatening situation for the fetus.
Choice D rationale
Repositioning the mother to a knee-chest position (or Trendelenburg) uses gravity to help relieve pressure on the prolapsed umbilical cord by moving the presenting part of the fetus away from the pelvis. This is the priority nursing intervention as it directly aims to improve fetal oxygenation by reducing cord compression until the fetus can be delivered. .
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