A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking furosemide and notes the client's potassium level is 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following physiological responses should the nurse expect related to the client's hypokalemia?
Hypoglycemia
Hyperreflexia
Cardiac dysrhythmias
Increased appetite
The Correct Answer is C
A. Hypoglycemia: Hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar, is not typically associated with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. While both conditions can occur due to certain diseases or medication use, they are not directly related.
B. Hyperreflexia: Hyperreflexia, a condition characterized by overactive reflexes, is not a common symptom of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia primarily affects muscle function, leading to symptoms such as muscle weakness, cramps, and potentially cardiac dysrhythmias. It does not typically cause an overactive reflex response.
C. Cardiac dysrhythmias: This is correct. Hypokalemia can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias. Potassium plays a crucial role in maintaining normal electrical activity in the heart. When potassium levels are low, it can disrupt this electrical activity, leading to irregular heart rhythms.
D. Increased appetite: Increased appetite is not a typical symptom of hypokalemia. In fact, loss of appetite is more commonly associated with this condition. Severe hypokalemia can affect the functioning of the muscles in the digestive system, leading to symptoms such as bloating, constipation, and abdominal pain.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The ST segment is elevated above the isoelectric line: This is correct. ST-segment elevation is a key ECG finding in acute myocardial infarction. It indicates that a portion of the heart muscle is not receiving enough blood (ischemia), which can lead to tissue damage or death (infarction).
B. The PR intervals are 0.15 second: While the PR interval is an important part of the ECG, a PR interval of 0.15 second is within the normal range and does not indicate an acute myocardial infarction.
C. The QT interval is equal to the R to R interval: The QT interval represents the time from the start of the Q wave to the end of the T wave, encompassing ventricular depolarization and repolarization. While prolonged or shortened QT intervals can be associated with certain cardiac conditions, they are not specific indicators of an acute myocardial infarction.
D. The QRS intervals are 0.08 second: The QRS interval represents ventricular depolarization1. A QRS interval of 0.08 second is within the normal range and does not indicate an acute myocardial infarction.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
(A) Place the client in high-Fowler’s position and encourage the use of incentive spirometer and coughing: This is the most appropriate action. The high-Fowler’s position can help improve lung expansion and gas exchange, while the use of an incentive spirometer and coughing can help clear secretions and improve ventilation. This is particularly important for a client who is postoperative following an open thoracotomy.
(B) Switch oxygen to a nonrebreather mask: Switching to a nonrebreather mask may deliver a higher concentration of oxygen, but it does not address the underlying issue of impaired gas exchange due to decreased lung expansion and retained secretions.
(C) Position the client prone and have the respiratory therapist perform postural drainage: While postural drainage can help clear secretions, it may not be comfortable or safe for a client who is 1 day postoperative following an open thoracotomy.
(D) Increase oxygen to 70%: Increasing the oxygen concentration may improve the client’s oxygen saturation, but it does not address the underlying issue of impaired gas exchange due to decreased lung expansion and retained secretions. Furthermore, excessively high concentrations of oxygen can have harmful effects, such as oxygen toxicity or suppression of the respiratory drive in some clients.
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