A nurse is assessing a client who has muscarinic agonist poisoning. Following administration of atropine, which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the treatment has been effective?
Hyperactive bowel sounds
Heart rate 90/min
Blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg
Increased salivation
The Correct Answer is B
A. Hyperactive bowel sounds: Muscarinic agonist poisoning typically results in increased gastrointestinal motility and hyperactive bowel sounds. Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, works by blocking muscarinic receptors and reducing gastrointestinal motility. Therefore, the presence of hyperactive bowel sounds may indicate ongoing muscarinic stimulation and inadequate treatment with atropine.
B. Heart rate 90/min: Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that increases heart rate by blocking the parasympathetic effects of acetylcholine on the heart. Bradycardia is a common manifestation of muscarinic agonist poisoning, and an increase in heart rate following atropine administration indicates reversal of this effect and effective treatment.
C. Blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg: Atropine administration may result in transient hypertension due to its effect on increasing heart rate and cardiac output. Hypotension is a common
manifestation of muscarinic agonist poisoning, and an increase in blood pressure following atropine administration may indicate improvement in cardiovascular function. Therefore, a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg may not necessarily indicate effective treatment with atropine.
D. Increased salivation: Muscarinic agonist poisoning typically results in excessive salivation (sialorrhea) due to stimulation of muscarinic receptors in the salivary glands. Atropine administration works by blocking these muscarinic receptors and reducing salivation. Therefore, increased salivation would indicate ongoing muscarinic stimulation and inadequate treatment with atropine.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Hypotension can occur as part of an allergic reaction to ceftriaxone, indicating a severe systemic response.
B. Bradycardia is not typically associated with an allergic reaction to ceftriaxone.
C. Polyuria is excessive urination and is not a common manifestation of an allergic reaction to ceftriaxone.
D. Nausea can occur with ceftriaxone administration but is not specific to an allergic reaction.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Pedal edema is not typically associated with an acute infusion reaction to amphotericin B.
B. A dry cough is not typically associated with an acute infusion reaction to amphotericin B.
C. Fever is a common manifestation of an acute infusion reaction to amphotericin B, indicating a systemic inflammatory response.
D. Hyperglycemia is not typically associated with an acute infusion reaction to amphotericin B.
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