A nurse is caring for a client who has HIV-1 infection and is prescribed zidovudine as part of antiretroviral therapy. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
Bone marrow suppression
Metabolic alkalosis
Hypoglycemia
Hyperkalemia
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Zidovudine, a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, commonly causes bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia, neutropenia, or thrombocytopenia. It inhibits DNA synthesis in rapidly dividing bone marrow cells, reducing red blood cell, white blood cell, and platelet production. Monitoring complete blood counts is essential to detect these hematologic toxicities early and manage them appropriately.
Choice B reason: Metabolic alkalosis is not a known adverse effect of zidovudine. The drug primarily affects hematopoiesis and mitochondrial function, not acid-base balance. Metabolic alkalosis may occur in conditions like excessive vomiting or diuretic use, but zidovudine’s mechanism does not alter bicarbonate or pH levels, making this an unlikely complication.
Choice C reason: Hypoglycemia is not associated with zidovudine. The drug’s primary toxicities involve bone marrow and mitochondrial dysfunction, not glucose metabolism. Hypoglycemia may occur with other conditions or medications, like insulin, but zidovudine does not affect pancreatic function or glucose regulation, so monitoring for this is unnecessary in this context.
Choice D reason: Hyperkalemia is not a recognized side effect of zidovudine. The drug’s adverse effects center on hematologic and muscular systems, not electrolyte balance. Hyperkalemia may result from renal dysfunction or other medications, but zidovudine does not disrupt potassium homeostasis, so it is not a priority for monitoring in this patient.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Blood pressure of 104/72 mm Hg, pulse of 80, and respiratory rate of 16 are within normal ranges for a postoperative patient. These vital signs indicate stable hemodynamic status and adequate oxygenation. Opioids may slightly lower blood pressure or respiratory rate, but these values do not suggest distress or complications requiring immediate provider notification. The patient’s condition appears stable, with no critical abnormalities warranting urgent intervention.
Choice B reason: Blood pressure of 110/60 mm Hg, pulse of 70, and respiratory rate of 14 are normal for a postoperative patient. These parameters reflect stable cardiovascular and respiratory function. Opioids can cause mild respiratory depression, but a rate of 14 is acceptable. No signs of opioid overdose, hypotension, or tachycardia are present, indicating no need for immediate provider contact or intervention.
Choice C reason: Blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg, pulse of 120, and respiratory rate of 18 indicate potential opioid-related complications or postoperative issues like hypovolemia or shock. Hypotension and tachycardia suggest inadequate perfusion, possibly due to bleeding or opioid-induced vasodilation. These signs require immediate provider notification to assess for overdose, hemorrhage, or other serious conditions affecting systemic circulation and tissue oxygenation.
Choice D reason: Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg, pulse of 100, and respiratory rate of 20 are within acceptable ranges, though the pulse is slightly elevated. This could reflect pain or mild stress but does not indicate critical instability. Opioids may cause mild tachycardia, but these vital signs do not necessitate immediate provider contact as they suggest stable physiological function without severe complications.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Providing sputum specimens every 2 weeks is not standard for tuberculosis treatment monitoring. Sputum cultures are typically collected monthly to assess treatment response until conversion to negative, usually within 2-3 months of effective therapy. Biweekly testing is excessive and not supported by guidelines, as it does not align with typical microbial clearance timelines.
Choice B reason: Expecting sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy is accurate for tuberculosis treatment with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Effective multidrug therapy typically renders sputum cultures negative within 2-6 months, indicating reduced bacterial load and treatment success, assuming adherence and no drug resistance, aligning with standard TB treatment protocols.
Choice C reason: Drinking 8 ounces of water with pyrazinamide is not a specific requirement. While hydration is important, pyrazinamide does not require a specific fluid volume for administration. It is taken orally, and no evidence suggests water intake enhances efficacy or reduces side effects like hepatotoxicity or hyperuricemia, which are managed differently.
Choice D reason: Taking isoniazid with an antacid is incorrect. Antacids can reduce isoniazid absorption by altering gastric pH, decreasing bioavailability. Isoniazid should be taken on an empty stomach for optimal absorption, as food or antacids may interfere with its pharmacokinetics, potentially reducing its effectiveness against Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.