A patient tests positive for HIV
These medications should keep the viral load suppressed
Headache, nausea, vomiting. and anorexia are known side effects of these
medications.
There are no side effects of ART
ART causes insomnia, so it should be taken at night
If you miss a dose of medication, take two of that pill as soon as you think of it
Take ART with antiacids to ensure they do not upset the stomach
We will measure the effectiveness of ART by measuring CD4+T cell counts
ART medications will cause wasting syndrome
Correct Answer : A,B,G
A. Antiretroviral therapy (ART), including dolutegravir and lamivudine, inhibits HIV replication, reducing viral load to undetectable levels, which is a primary goal of treatment. This aligns with the patient’s regimen, as suppressing viral load prevents disease progression and reduces transmission risk.
B. Dolutegravir and lamivudine can cause side effects such as headache, nausea, vomiting, and anorexia, which are well-documented in clinical data. Educating the patient about these potential effects is crucial for adherence and managing expectations.
C. ART does not have zero side effects. Clinical evidence shows dolutegravir and lamivudine can cause adverse effects, including gastrointestinal issues and, rarely, liver problems, making this statement incorrect for patient education.
D. While dolutegravir may cause insomnia in some patients, it is not a universal effect requiring nighttime dosing. The prescribed morning dose of dolutegravir is standard to optimize adherence and efficacy, making this statement incorrect.
E. Doubling a missed dose is incorrect and potentially harmful. ART regimens require consistent dosing; patients should take the missed dose as soon as remembered unless it’s close to the next dose, to avoid toxicity and maintain efficacy.
F. Taking ART with antacids is not recommended, as antacids can reduce dolutegravir absorption, decreasing its effectiveness. Patients should be advised to avoid antacids or follow specific timing guidelines, making this statement incorrect.
G. CD4+T cell counts are a key measure of ART effectiveness, as they reflect immune system recovery. Monitoring CD4+T counts every 3 months, as ordered, assesses treatment success, making this statement correct for patient education.
H. ART, including dolutegravir and lamivudine, does not cause wasting syndrome. Wasting syndrome is associated with untreated HIV or older regimens, not modern ART, making this statement incorrect for patient education.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Elevated troponin is a strong indicator of myocardial infarction, reflecting massive cardiac cell destruction. Troponins are proteins released from damaged cardiomyocytes during ischemia. Their high specificity for cardiac muscle makes them a key biomarker for diagnosing acute myocardial infarction, as levels rise within hours of cell death.
Choice B reason: Decreased hemoglobin indicates anemia or blood loss but is not specific to massive cell destruction in myocardial infarction. It may occur secondary to chronic conditions or bleeding but does not directly reflect acute cardiac tissue damage, unlike troponin, which is a precise marker of cardiomyocyte necrosis.
Choice C reason: Elevated creatinine reflects renal dysfunction, not massive cell destruction in myocardial infarction. It indicates impaired kidney filtration, often due to hypoperfusion or chronic disease. While shock from infarction may cause secondary renal injury, creatinine is not a direct marker of cardiac cell death, unlike troponin.
Choice D reason: Decreased sodium (hyponatremia) may occur in heart failure or fluid overload but is not a marker of massive cell destruction. It reflects electrolyte imbalance, not tissue necrosis. In myocardial infarction, sodium levels are typically unaffected unless complicated by other conditions, making it irrelevant to acute cardiac damage.
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"D"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"C"},"E":{"answers":"B"}}
Explanation
The correct answers are:
- Immunoglobulin administration: Passive – Artificial Immunity
- Antibodies produced by body after exposure to live pathogen: Active – Natural Immunity
- Vaccine administration: Active – Artificial Immunity
- Antibodies passed from mother to fetus: Passive – Natural Immunity
- Antibodies produced by body after exposure to attenuated virus: Active – Artificial Immunity
A. Immunoglobulin administration involves injecting pre-formed antibodies from an external source, such as human or animal serum, to provide immediate but temporary protection. This does not stimulate the recipient’s immune system to produce antibodies or memory cells, aligning with passive – artificial immunity.
B. Exposure to a live pathogen triggers the body’s immune system to produce antibodies and memory cells, conferring long-term protection. This natural process of immune activation matches active – natural immunity, as the body actively responds to the pathogen without artificial intervention.
C. Vaccine administration introduces attenuated or inactivated pathogens, prompting the immune system to produce antibodies and memory cells without causing disease. This artificial induction of immunity aligns with active – artificial immunity, as it mimics natural infection but is deliberately administered.
D. Antibodies passed from mother to fetus, primarily immunoglobulin G (IgG) through the placenta, provide temporary protection to the newborn without active immune response. This natural transfer of antibodies corresponds to passive – natural immunity, as it occurs without medical intervention.
E. Exposure to an attenuated virus via vaccination stimulates the immune system to produce antibodies and memory cells, offering long-term protection. This controlled, artificial exposure aligns with active – artificial immunity, as it involves deliberate administration of a weakened pathogen to induce an immune response.
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