A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis and is taking isoniazid and rifampin.
Which of the following outcomes indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen?
The client tests negative for HIV.
The client has a negative sputum culture.
The client’s liver function test results are within the expected reference range.
The client has a positive purified protein derivative test.
The Correct Answer is B
The client has a negative sputum culture. This indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen because a negative sputum culture means that the client is no longer infectious and has cleared the tuberculosis bacteria from their lungs.
Choice A is wrong because testing negative for HIV does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. HIV testing is not related to tuberculosis treatment.
Choice C is wrong because having a positive purified protein derivative test does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
A positive PPD test means that the client has been exposed to tuberculosis, but it does not indicate whether the client has an active or latent infection. Choice D is wrong because having liver function test results within the expected reference range does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
Liver function tests are used to monitor for possible adverse effects of isoniazid and rifampin, which can cause hepatotoxicity, but they do not reflect the effectiveness of the treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because fever is a common sign of an acute infusion reaction that can occur when receiving IV amphotericin B. An acute infusion reaction is caused by the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines from the fungal cell wall disruption by amphotericin B. It usually occurs within the first hour of infusion and can be prevented by administering pre-medications such as antipyretics, antihistamines, or corticosteroids.
Choice A. Pedal edema is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Pedal edema may indicate fluid overload, heart failure, or renal impairment, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.
Choice C. Dry cough is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Dry cough may indicate an allergic reaction, pulmonary infection, or interstitial lung disease, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion. Choice D. Hyperglycemia is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Hyperglycemia may indicate diabetes mellitus, steroid use, or stress response, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Drowsiness is a very common adverse effect of paroxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used to treat depression and anxiety. Paroxetine can cause somnolence (sleepiness) in up to 22% of patients who take it. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for this effect and avoid driving or operating machinery until they know how the medication affects them.
Choice A is wrong because tinnitus (ringing in the ears) is not a common adverse effect of paroxetine.
It may occur rarely in some patients, but it is not a typical symptom of SSRI use.
Choice B is wrong because alopecia (hair loss) is not a common adverse effect of paroxetine.
It may occur rarely in some patients, but it is not a typical symptom of SSRI use.
Choice C is wrong because peripheral edema (swelling of the limbs) is not a common adverse effect of paroxetine.
It may occur rarely in some patients, but it is not a typical symptom of SSRI use.
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