A nurse is caring for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus and reports severe ankle pain after falling off a stepstool at home. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider?
Obtain capillary blood glucose level every 2 hr
Check the neurovascular status of the client's lower extremities every hour
Apply a cold pack to the client's ankle for 30 min every hour
Maintain the affected ankle elevated and immobilized
The Correct Answer is C
- A. Incorrect. Obtaining capillary blood glucose level every 2 hr is appropriate for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus, but it does not address the ankle injury.
- B. Incorrect. Checking the neurovascular status of the client's lower extremities every hour is important for a client who has an ankle injury, but it does not require clarification with the provider.
- C. Correct. Applying a cold pack to the client's ankle for 30 min every hour can reduce swelling and inflammation, but it can also impair circulation and increase the risk of tissue damage in a client who has diabetes mellitus. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before implementing it.
- D. Incorrect. Maintaining the affected ankle elevated and immobilized can help prevent further injury and promote healing, but it does not require clarification with the provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
- A. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature does not drop 1 degree 1 week after ovulation. The body temperature rises slightly (about 0.4 to 0.8 degrees Fahrenheit) after ovulation and remains elevated until the next menstrual period.
- B. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature should be taken each morning before getting out of bed or doing any activity. Taking the temperature in the evening can result in inaccurate readings due to variations in daily activities, meals, stress, exercise, etc.
- C. This choice is correct because the body temperature might decrease slightly (about 0.2 degrees Fahrenheit) just prior to ovulation due to a surge in estrogen levels. This dip in temperature can indicate that ovulation is about to occur and that the client should avoid unprotected intercourse if she wants to prevent pregnancy.
- D. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature is not at its highest during menstruation. The body temperature drops at the onset of menstruation due to a decline in progesterone levels and marks the beginning of a new cycle.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
- A. Incorrect. The client does not have respiratory alkalosis because respiratory alkalosis is characterized by a low PaCO2 (less than 35 mm Hg) and a high pH (greater than 7.45).
- B. Incorrect. The client does not have metabolic alkalosis because metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a high HCO3 (greater than 26 mEq/L) and a high pH (greater than 7.45).
- C. Correct. The client has respiratory acidosis because respiratory acidosis is characterized by a high PaCO2 (greater than 45 mm Hg) and a low pH (less than 7.35).
- D. Incorrect. The client does not have metabolic acidosis because metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low HCO3 (less than 22 mEq/L) and a low pH (less than 7.35).
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