A nurse is assessing a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and reports sudden, severe abdominal pain with moderate vaginal bleeding and persistent uterine contractions.
The client's blood pressure is 88/50 mm Hg, and her abdomen is rigid.
The nurse should identify these findings as indicating which of the following complications?
Uterine rupture.
Placental abruption.
Placenta previa.
Amniotic fluid embolus.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Uterine rupture typically presents with intense, constant abdominal pain and signs of shock. However, the absence of visible bleeding in the abdominal cavity makes this choice less likely in this case.
Choice B rationale:
Placental abruption involves the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery. The sudden, severe abdominal pain, moderate vaginal bleeding, persistent uterine contractions, and signs of hypovolemic shock (low blood pressure, rigid abdomen) are indicative of placental abruption. This condition requires immediate medical intervention due to the risk of fetal and maternal compromise.
Choice C rationale:
Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening. It typically presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The severe abdominal pain described in the scenario is inconsistent with placenta previa.
Choice D rationale:
Amniotic fluid embolus is a rare and life-threatening condition in which amniotic fluid enters the maternal bloodstream, causing an allergic reaction. It can lead to sudden cardiovascular collapse. Although it can cause respiratory distress and hypotension, it does not usually present with severe abdominal pain or uterine contractions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is D
Choice A Reason: While croup can be serious, an O2 saturation of 92% on room air is generally stable. This child's condition is concerning but not immediately life-threatening.
Choice B Reason: A 15-year-old adolescent who is 2 hours postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation of the left ankle and is requesting pain medication is in need of comfort measures. Postoperative pain management is important for recovery, but it is not a priority over more critical conditions.
Choice C Reason: A 3-year-old toddler with gastroenteritis, moderate dehydration, and two loose bowel movements over the past 24 hours requires rehydration and monitoring. The normal range for bowel movements varies, but two loose stools in 24 hours for a toddler with gastroenteritis is not unusual. Dehydration can become severe, so this child should be assessed soon, but it is not the most urgent case.
Choice D Reason: This child's sudden relief from pain could be a sign of a perforated appendix, a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention. Therefore, this child's condition is the most urgent and requires immediate assessment.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A is incorrect because the completion of the incident report should not be documented in the client's medical record, but in a separate file for quality improvement purposes.
B is correct because the time the medication was given is an essential fact related to the incident that should be documented in the client's medical record.
C is incorrect because the reason for the medication error should not be documented in the client's medical record, but in the incident report for analysis and prevention of future errors.
D is incorrect because the notification of the pharmacist should not be documented in the client's medical record, but in the incident report for follow-up and corrective actions.
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