A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hr postoperative following abdominal surgery and has received hydromorphone for pain. The nurse notes that the client's respiratory rate is 10/min. Which of the following prescribed medications should the nurse anticipate administering to the client?
Prednisone
Naloxone
Epinephrine
Flumazenil
The Correct Answer is B
Hydromorphone is a potent opioid analgesic that provides relief through the stimulation of mu-opioid receptors in the central nervous system. A dangerous side effect is respiratory depression, where the drug decreases the responsiveness of brainstem respiratory centers to carbon dioxide levels.
Rationale:
A. Prednisone is a corticosteroid used for its anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive properties. It has no pharmacological ability to reverse the central nervous system depression caused by opioid agonists like hydromorphone. Administering prednisone to a client with a depressed respiratory rate would provide no benefit in managing the immediate risk of respiratory failure or apnea.
B. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that competitively binds to mu-opioid receptors, rapidly displacing opioid molecules like hydromorphone. It is the gold standard for reversing opioid-induced respiratory depression, restoring a normal breathing rate and level of consciousness within minutes. The nurse must monitor the client closely after administration, as the half-life of naloxone is shorter than hydromorphone.
C. Epinephrine is a catecholamine used in the treatment of anaphylaxis, cardiac arrest, and severe hypotension. While it can stimulate the cardiovascular system, it is not a reversal agent for opioid toxicity. Using epinephrine for a depressed respiratory rate would not address the underlying receptor-level blockade causing the decreased ventilation and could cause unnecessary cardiac strain.
D. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist used specifically to reverse the effects of drugs like diazepam or midazolam. It does not bind to opioid receptors and therefore cannot reverse the respiratory depression caused by hydromorphone. The nurse must correctly identify the offending drug class to ensure the proper antagonist is selected for emergency intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Diabetic peripheral neuropathyresults from chronic hyperglycemia-induced nerve fiber damage and microvascular impairment. The resulting pain is neuropathicrather than nociceptive, requiring medications that modulate neurotransmitter release or stabilize neuronal membranes. Standard analgesics are often ineffective for the characteristic parasthesiaand burning sensations associated with this condition.
Rationale:
A.Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant medication frequently used as a first-line treatment for neuropathic pain. It works by binding to the alpha-2-delta subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels in the central nervous system, reducing the release of excitatory neurotransmitters. This stabilization of overactive neurons effectively alleviates the burning and tingling sensations typical of diabetic nerve damage.
B.Acetylcysteine is a mucolytic agent used primarily to thin respiratory secretions or as an antidote for acetaminophen toxicity. It does not possess analgesic properties and has no role in managing nerve-related pain. Administering this medication would not address the underlying pathophysiology of the client's peripheral neuropathy or provide any relief for their sensory symptoms in the feet.
C.Fentanyl is a potent opioid agonist used for severe, acute, or chronic nociceptive pain. While opioids can mask pain, they are generally not recommended as first-line therapy for diabetic neuropathy due to the high risk of dependence and limited efficacy for neuropathic burning. Treatment guidelines prioritize non-opioid neuromodulators like gabapentin or antidepressants over potent narcotics for this condition.
D.Hydromorphone is a strong opioid analgesic indicated for moderate to severe pain that is unresponsive to other treatments. Like fentanyl, it is not the preferred choice for managing the chronic, lancinating pain of diabetic neuropathy. Long-term use of hydromorphone carries a significant risk of tolerance and hyperalgesia without addressing the specific neuronal hyperexcitability that causes the tingling sensations.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Salicylism is a toxic condition resulting from excessive salicylateaccumulation, often characterized by acid-base disturbances and neurological changes. It disrupts metabolicprocesses and affects the vestibulocochlear nerve, leading to distinct sensory impairments. Prompt recognition of early toxicity is vital to prevent severe respiratory alkalosisor metabolic acidosis.
Rationale:
A.Diplopia, or double vision, is not a hallmark sign of early salicylate toxicity or salicylism. While severe poisoning can eventually lead to central nervous system depression and visual disturbances, it is not the primary indicator used for clinical screening. The nurse should look for signs more specific to the Eighth cranial nerve and acid-base status when assessing for aspirin toxicity.
B.Joint pain is an indication for taking aspirin rather than a sign of its toxicity. Aspirin is frequently used to treat inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis or osteoarthritis due to its inhibition of cyclooxygenase. If a client continues to experience joint pain, it suggests the dosage is therapeutic or perhaps insufficient, rather than indicating an overdose or salicylism.
C.Facial edema is more indicative of a type I hypersensitivity reaction or angioedema rather than chronic salicylate toxicity. While a patient can be allergic to aspirin, this finding represents an acute immunological response rather than the metabolic syndrome of salicylism. Salicylism specifically targets the auditory system and metabolic pathways rather than causing localized soft tissue swelling.
D.Tinnitus, described as a ringing or buzzing in the ears, is the most common early clinical manifestation of salicylism. It occurs because high levels of aspirin are toxic to the hair cells within the cochlea and affect the acoustic nerve. The nurse must instruct the client that the onset of tinnitus requires immediate cessation of the medication and a medical evaluation to prevent further toxicity.
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