A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and diagnosed with placenta previa. The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
"This could result in profound bleeding."
"This could initiate preterm labor."
"There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes."
"There is an increased risk of introducing infection."
The Correct Answer is A
Explanation:
A. "This could result in profound bleeding."
This is the correct explanation. Placenta previa involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix. Performing an internal examination, such as a vaginal exam, can disrupt the placenta and lead to severe bleeding. This bleeding can be dangerous for both the mother and the baby, making it a critical concern to avoid internal exams in placenta previa cases.
B. "This could initiate preterm labor."
While internal examinations may trigger preterm labor in some cases, the primary concern in placenta previa is the risk of significant bleeding. Preterm labor is not typically the primary reason for avoiding internal exams in placenta previa; instead, the focus is on preventing bleeding and its associated complications.
C. "There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes."
While an internal examination may carry a risk of membrane rupture, especially in situations with low-lying placenta or marginal previa, the primary concern in placenta previa is the potential for severe bleeding if the placenta is disturbed. Rupture of membranes is a consideration but is not the main reason for avoiding internal exams in placenta previa.
D. "There is an increased risk of introducing infection."
While infection is a concern with any invasive procedure, including internal examinations, it is not typically the primary reason for avoiding internal exams in placenta previa. The main focus is on preventing bleeding complications that can arise from disrupting the placenta.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Explanation:
A. Drowsiness: Mild drowsiness is a common side effect of magnesium sulfate therapy and is not necessarily indicative of toxicity. However, severe drowsiness or lethargy can be a sign of magnesium toxicity and should be reported to the provider.
B. Facial flushing: Facial flushing is a common side effect of magnesium sulfate administration and is generally not a sign of toxicity. It is often accompanied by warmth and redness of the skin but is not considered a serious adverse reaction.
C. Nausea: Nausea is another common side effect of magnesium sulfate therapy and is usually mild and transient. It is not typically indicative of toxicity unless it is severe and persistent.
D. Respiratory depression: Respiratory depression is a critical sign of magnesium toxicity. Excessive levels of magnesium can affect neuromuscular function, leading to respiratory muscle weakness and depression. This can result in shallow or slowed breathing, decreased oxygenation, and potential respiratory failure. Respiratory depression is a serious complication that requires immediate intervention, and the nurse should report it to the provider promptly.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Explanation:
A. "The baby's heart beat is audible by a Doppler stethoscope at 12 weeks of pregnancy."
This statement is correct. Around 12 weeks of pregnancy, the baby's heartbeat becomes audible using a Doppler stethoscope. This is a significant milestone in prenatal care as it allows healthcare providers and expectant parents to hear the baby's heartbeat for the first time, providing reassurance about fetal well-being.
B. "Very fine hairs, called lanugo, cover your baby's entire body by week 36 of pregnancy."
This statement is incorrect. Lanugo, the fine hair covering the baby's body, typically appears much earlier in pregnancy, around 20 weeks. However, it usually starts to shed during the third trimester, and by week 36, the baby may have minimal or no lanugo remaining. Therefore, stating that lanugo covers the entire body by week 36 is inaccurate.
C. "The sex of the baby is determined by week 8 of pregnancy."
This statement is incorrect. The sex of the baby is determined at conception when the sperm fertilizes the egg. However, the external genitalia are not typically visible on ultrasound until around week 16 to 20 of pregnancy. Therefore, while the genetic sex is determined early, it may not be visualized or confirmed until later in pregnancy.
D. "You will first feel your baby move in week 24 of pregnancy."
This statement is incorrect. Most women begin to feel fetal movements, also known as quickening, between weeks 16 and 25 of pregnancy. The first movements are typically felt around weeks 18 to 20, rather than specifically at week 24. Therefore, stating that the first fetal movements are felt at week 24 is not accurate.
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