A nurse in an antepartum unit is triaging clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

A client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and reports a cough and fever.

A client who has missed a period and reports vaginal spotting.

A client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and reports nausea and vomiting.

A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and reports painless vaginal bleeding.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a cough and fever may have an infection, which is concerning, but it is not immediately life-threatening. The nurse should assess this client soon, but it is not the highest priority.

B. A client who has missed a period and reports vaginal spotting could be experiencing an early pregnancy complication, such as a miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy. This situation requires attention, but it is not as urgent as painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester.

C. A client at 14 weeks of gestation with nausea and vomiting is likely experiencing common pregnancy symptoms. While these symptoms can be uncomfortable and require management, they are not typically urgent.

D. A client at 28 weeks of gestation with painless vaginal bleeding could be experiencing placenta previa or another serious condition that poses an immediate risk to both the mother and the fetus. This situation requires urgent assessment and intervention.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet: This is an incorrect

interpretation of station 0. Station 0 means that the presenting part is at the level of the ischial spines, not fully descended through the pelvic outlet.

B) The lowermost portion of the presenting part is at the level of the ischial spines: This is the correct interpretation of station 0. Station 0 is the landmark at which the presenting part is at the level of the ischial spines in the maternal pelvis.
C) The posterior fontanel is palpable: The position of the fontanelle is not related to the station of the presenting part.
D) The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position: The position of the fetal head is not indicated by the station measurement.

A. "Report of pain above the umbilicus" B. "Amniotic fluid in the vaginal vault" C. "Brownish vaginal discharge" D. "Cervical dilation"

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A: Pain above the umbilicus may be associated with various conditions during pregnancy, but it is not a definitive sign of labor.

Choice B: The presence of amniotic fluid in the vaginal vault (rupture of membranes or "water breaking") can be a sign of labor, but it is not the most specific indicator.

Choice C: Brownish vaginal discharge may indicate the passage of old blood or "bloody show," which can be a sign of impending labor. However, it is not as reliable as cervical dilation.

Choice D: Cervical dilation is one of the most definitive signs of labor. As the cervix opens and thins (effaces), it allows for the baby's passage through the birth canal. Cervical dilation is an essential indicator of active labor.

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A nurse in an antepartum unit is triaging clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse midwife is examining a client who is a primigravida at 42 weeks of gestation and states that she believes she is in labor. Which of the following findings confirm to the nurse that the client is in labor?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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